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Free UKMLA surgery questions with explanations

Surgery questions in the UKMLA are about recognising who needs an operation, when, and which one. These ten cover rectal prolapse repair, testicular torsion, undescended testis, breast cancer, primary aldosteronism, chylothorax and common lumps.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Surgery

A 36-year-old woman, otherwise well and fit for general anaesthesia, has a full-thickness rectal prolapse with faecal incontinence. Which operation offers the lowest risk of recurrence?

  1. AThiersch anal encirclement
  2. BStapled haemorrhoidopexy
  3. CLaparoscopic ventral mesh rectopexy
  4. DAltemeier perineal rectosigmoidectomy
  5. EDelorme's procedure
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C. Laparoscopic ventral mesh rectopexy

Operations for rectal prolapse are divided into abdominal and perineal approaches. Abdominal rectopexy, now usually performed laparoscopically with a ventral mesh, fixes the rectum to the sacrum and gives the lowest recurrence rate and the best improvement in continence, so it is the operation of choice in patients fit for a general anaesthetic. Perineal operations such as Delorme's mucosal sleeve resection and the Altemeier perineal rectosigmoidectomy avoid the abdomen and are chosen for frail or elderly patients, at the cost of a higher recurrence rate. Anal encirclement narrows the anus without correcting the prolapse and is now rarely used.

Remember

In a patient fit for surgery, abdominal (laparoscopic ventral mesh) rectopexy gives the lowest recurrence for full-thickness rectal prolapse; perineal procedures are reserved for the frail.

Question 2Surgery

A 15-year-old boy undergoes scrotal exploration for testicular torsion and both testes are fixed. The surgeon explains that the operation was needed on both sides because of an anatomical variant. Which variant is most commonly responsible for torsion in this age group?

  1. AEpididymal cyst
  2. BBell-clapper deformity
  3. CVaricocele
  4. DHydrocele of the cord
  5. EPatent processus vaginalis
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B. Bell-clapper deformity

In the bell-clapper deformity the tunica vaginalis attaches high on the spermatic cord and completely surrounds the testis and epididymis, so the testis hangs freely like a clapper in a bell and can rotate on the cord. This intravaginal torsion is the type seen in adolescents and adults, and because the variant is usually present on both sides the contralateral testis is fixed at the time of exploration. A patent processus vaginalis predisposes to hernia and hydrocele rather than torsion, and neonatal torsion is a different, extravaginal process in which the whole tunica and testis twist before the tunica has fused to the scrotal wall.

Remember

Adolescent testicular torsion is usually intravaginal and caused by the bilateral bell-clapper deformity, which is why both testes are fixed.

Question 3Child health

A 5-month-old boy's right testis, absent from the scrotum at birth and at the 6-week check, is palpable in the inguinal canal and cannot be brought down. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. AArrange an ultrasound scan of the groin and scrotum
  2. BReassure the parents that descent is likely by 2 years
  3. CReview again at 12 months of age
  4. DPrescribe a course of human chorionic gonadotrophin
  5. ERefer to paediatric surgery for orchidopexy
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E. Refer to paediatric surgery for orchidopexy

Most testes that are undescended at birth come down spontaneously in the first months, driven by the postnatal (mini-puberty) testosterone surge; descent after six months is unlikely. A testis still undescended at the 4 to 5 month review should therefore be referred to paediatric surgery, to be seen by 6 months, with the aim of orchidopexy by 12 months of age, because the higher temperature outside the scrotum progressively damages the germ cells and reduces later fertility, and an orchidopexied testis is easier to examine for malignancy. Ultrasound adds nothing when the testis is palpable, as it does not change the need for surgery, and it is unreliable for locating an impalpable testis. Hormonal treatment has poor success and is not used in UK practice.

Remember

A testis still undescended at 4 to 5 months is unlikely to come down on its own: refer to be seen by 6 months, with orchidopexy by 12 months, to protect fertility.

Question 4Cancer

A 48-year-old woman attends her GP with a 3-month history of a right nipple becoming inverted, and a bloodstained discharge. On examination there is a hard, irregular mass deep to the nipple and a palpable axillary node. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AInvasive ductal carcinoma
  2. BBreast abscess
  3. CPaget's disease of the nipple
  4. DMammary duct ectasia
  5. EFibroadenoma
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A. Invasive ductal carcinoma

The combination of new nipple inversion, bloodstained discharge, a hard irregular retroareolar mass and palpable axillary lymphadenopathy in a middle-aged woman is the classic presentation of invasive breast carcinoma, most commonly invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type), which accounts for approximately 75% of invasive breast cancers. Urgent 2-week-wait referral is indicated for any woman aged 30 and over with an unexplained breast lump, and from age 50 and over for suspicious nipple changes.

Remember

Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type) is the commonest invasive breast malignancy, typically presenting as a painless hard irregular mass, sometimes with nipple retraction or skin tethering.

Question 5Endocrine and metabolic

A 39-year-old man with confirmed primary aldosteronism has a 1.4 cm right adrenal nodule on CT. Adrenal venous sampling shows aldosterone secretion lateralising to the right. Which is the most appropriate definitive management?

  1. ALaparoscopic right adrenalectomy
  2. BBilateral adrenalectomy
  3. CLong-term eplerenone
  4. DLong-term amiloride
  5. ELong-term spironolactone
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A. Laparoscopic right adrenalectomy

Primary aldosteronism has two main causes with different treatments: a unilateral aldosterone-producing adenoma, cured by removing that gland, and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, managed with a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist for life. CT alone cannot make the distinction because non-functioning nodules are common, so adrenal venous sampling is used to prove that the aldosterone comes from the side with the nodule. With lateralisation confirmed, laparoscopic adrenalectomy corrects the hypokalaemia in almost all patients, cures or improves the hypertension in most, and spares a young man decades of drug therapy; surgery also gives better long-term cardiovascular and renal outcomes than medical treatment for unilateral disease.

Remember

Unilateral primary aldosteronism confirmed by adrenal venous sampling is treated with laparoscopic adrenalectomy; bilateral hyperplasia is treated with spironolactone.

Question 6Cancer

A patient undergoes an oesophagectomy for cancer. On the third postoperative day, shortly after jejunostomy feeding is started, he becomes breathless and his chest drain output rises to over a litre a day of milky white fluid. What complication has occurred?

  1. ATracheobronchial injury
  2. BAnastomotic leak
  3. CEmpyema
  4. DPulmonary embolism
  5. EThoracic duct injury (chylothorax)
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E. Thoracic duct injury (chylothorax)

Milky white fluid in the chest drain following oesophagectomy is highly suggestive of chylothorax due to intraoperative thoracic duct injury, but empyema and pseudochylothorax look identical and chyle may be clear in a fasted patient, so the diagnosis is confirmed by a drain fluid triglyceride level above 1.24 mmol/L (>110 mg/dL). The thoracic duct runs adjacent to the oesophagus and is vulnerable during mediastinal dissection, particularly at the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus.

Remember

Chylothorax after oesophagectomy presents with milky chest drain fluid rich in triglycerides and is managed initially with nil by mouth and medium-chain triglyceride diet, with surgical duct ligation for high-output leaks.

Question 7Obstetrics and gynaecology

A 45-year-old woman with a 10 cm uterine fibroid is listed for hysterectomy in 4 months. She has heavy menstrual bleeding and her haemoglobin is 85 g/L. Alongside oral iron, which pre-operative medical therapy is most appropriate?

  1. AUlipristal acetate
  2. BGoserelin
  3. CCombined oral contraceptive
  4. DTranexamic acid
  5. ENorethisterone
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B. Goserelin

GnRH agonists such as goserelin induce a hypo-oestrogenic state that shrinks fibroids by 30–50% over 3–4 months and produces amenorrhoea, allowing haemoglobin to recover with concurrent iron therapy. Pre-operative GnRH analogue use before hysterectomy or myomectomy is supported where fibroid size or anaemia is a concern, typically for 3–4 months prior to surgery. Add-back HRT may be considered if treatment exceeds 6 months to mitigate hypo-oestrogenic side effects.

Remember

Pre-operative GnRH agonists (e.g. goserelin) shrink uterine fibroids by 30–50% and induce amenorrhoea, allowing correction of anaemia before hysterectomy.

Question 8Gastrointestinal including liver

A patient asks why anal fissures are so painful. What is the underlying pathophysiology that causes the severe pain?

  1. AInternal anal sphincter spasm and ischaemia
  2. BPudendal neuralgia
  3. CPerianal nerve damage
  4. DInfection of the fissure
  5. EExternal sphincter tear
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A. Internal anal sphincter spasm and ischaemia

Anal fissure pain is driven by reflex spasm of the internal anal sphincter, which raises resting anal pressure and reduces blood flow to the posterior midline anoderm (already the most poorly perfused area), producing ischaemia that both causes pain and prevents healing. This pathophysiology underpins first-line medical treatments (topical GTN, diltiazem) and botulinum toxin or lateral internal sphincterotomy, all of which reduce sphincter tone.

Remember

Internal anal sphincter spasm causes ischaemia of the posterior midline anoderm, which is why sphincter-relaxing agents (licensed GTN first, off-label diltiazem as the alternative) are the first-line medical treatment.

Question 9Dermatology

A 45-year-old man has had a 2 cm smooth, mobile lump on his upper back for several years. Over the past four days it has become red, hot, tender and fluctuant. He is otherwise well with no fever. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

  1. AReassurance that it will settle without intervention
  2. BIncision and drainage, with excision of the cyst wall deferred until inflammation settles
  3. CAspiration with a wide-bore needle
  4. DOral flucloxacillin and review in one week
  5. EComplete excision of the cyst and its capsule now
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B. Incision and drainage, with excision of the cyst wall deferred until inflammation settles

A long-standing mobile lump that suddenly becomes hot, fluctuant and tender is an inflamed or abscessed epidermal cyst, usually from rupture of keratin into the dermis with secondary infection. A fluctuant collection needs draining, and the cyst wall is friable and difficult to remove intact while it is acutely inflamed, so attempting a formal excision at this stage risks incomplete removal and recurrence. The standard approach is incision and drainage now, then elective excision of the residual cyst wall once the inflammation has settled. Antibiotics alone do not drain a fluctuant collection.

Remember

An inflamed fluctuant epidermal cyst is incised and drained first; the cyst wall is excised electively once inflammation has resolved.

Question 10Surgery

A 40-year-old man has a 2 cm smooth subcutaneous lump on his neck. The GP is unsure whether it is a lipoma or an epidermoid cyst. Which examination finding most favours an epidermoid cyst?

  1. AA central punctum with the lump attached to the overlying skin
  2. BFree movement over the underlying muscle
  3. CA lobulated surface on palpation
  4. DSoft, compressible consistency
  5. EThe edge slipping away from the examining finger
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A. A central punctum with the lump attached to the overlying skin

An epidermoid cyst arises from the follicular infundibulum within the dermis, so it is tethered to the skin and usually shows a central punctum through which cheesy keratinous material can be expressed. A lipoma sits in the subcutaneous fat beneath a freely mobile skin, and its lobulated surface, soft consistency and slippage sign all reflect encapsulated fat rather than a cyst wall. Both lumps are mobile over deeper structures, so mobility over muscle does not separate them.

Remember

Skin tethering with a central punctum distinguishes an epidermoid cyst from a lipoma, whose overlying skin moves freely.

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