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Free UKMLA sexual health questions with explanations

Sexual health questions combine diagnosis with screening, prevention and contraception. These ten cover syphilis in and out of pregnancy, cervical screening results, HPV vaccination, rifampicin and contraception, postcoital bleeding, PrEP monitoring and genital warts in pregnancy.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Sexual health

A 35-year-old man has generalised maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles, patchy alopecia, generalised lymphadenopathy, and painless moist white patches in the mouth. He had a painless genital ulcer 6 weeks ago that resolved. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ADrug exanthem
  2. BMeasles
  3. CSecondary syphilis
  4. DPityriasis rosea
  5. ETertiary syphilis
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C. Secondary syphilis

Secondary syphilis develops 4 to 10 weeks after the primary chancre and classically presents with a generalised maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles, mucous patches (painless white oral lesions), patchy 'moth-eaten' alopecia, condylomata lata, and generalised lymphadenopathy. The history of a preceding painless genital ulcer that resolved spontaneously is characteristic of the primary chancre of Treponema pallidum infection.

Remember

Palmoplantar maculopapular rash with mucous patches, moth-eaten alopecia, and lymphadenopathy following a resolved painless genital ulcer is characteristic of secondary syphilis.

Question 2Sexual health

A 32-year-old man attends a sexual health clinic after an anonymous contact notification. He is asymptomatic with no visible lesions. The clinic needs to screen him serologically for the suspected infection. Which investigation is the most appropriate initial screening test?

  1. AComplement fixation test
  2. BDark-field microscopy of lesion exudate
  3. CVDRL/RPR
  4. DTPPA particle agglutination
  5. ETreponemal enzyme immunoassay
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E. Treponemal enzyme immunoassay

UK screening uses a treponemal enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or chemiluminescent assay as the initial test because it detects IgG and IgM antibodies to Treponema pallidum with high sensitivity across all disease stages, including asymptomatic latent infection. Reactive screens are confirmed with a second treponemal test such as TPHA/TPLA or another EIA/CLIA, and a non-treponemal test (VDRL/RPR) is then titred for staging and monitoring response to treatment.

Remember

UK first-line serological screening for syphilis is a treponemal EIA/CLIA, with reactive results confirmed by a second treponemal assay and quantified by VDRL/RPR for staging.

Question 3Sexual health

A 29-year-old pregnant woman is found to have positive treponemal serology at booking with an RPR titre of 1:32 and a negative syphilis test 18 months ago, consistent with early latent syphilis. She has no penicillin allergy. Beyond treating her, which is the most important additional management step to prevent fetal harm?

  1. ADefer treatment until after delivery to avoid Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
  2. BPlan caesarean section to prevent vertical transmission
  3. CMaternal HIV PEP
  4. DTreat at least 30 days before delivery and repeat RPR serology at delivery (more often if at risk of reinfection)
  5. ERoutine fetal MRI at 28 weeks
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D. Treat at least 30 days before delivery and repeat RPR serology at delivery (more often if at risk of reinfection)

Congenital syphilis is largely preventable if maternal treatment with benzathine penicillin is completed at least 30 days before delivery, allowing transplacental treatment of the fetus. Repeat RPR serology at delivery (and more often if there is a risk of reinfection) is advised to detect reinfection; a 4-fold fall may take months and is often not seen before delivery, and a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction can trigger uterine contractions but is self-limiting and managed supportively.

Remember

Maternal syphilis: treat >=30 days before delivery, repeat RPR at delivery (more often if reinfection risk); transplacental transmission means caesarean does not protect the fetus.

Question 4Sexual health

A 32-year-old woman attends her practice nurse for routine cervical screening. The sample tests positive for high-risk human papillomavirus types. Cytology on the same sample shows no abnormal cells. What is the next step in her management?

  1. ARepeat HPV test in 12 months
  2. BReturn to routine screening recall
  3. CRefer directly for colposcopy now
  4. DRepeat cytology in six months
  5. ESend sample for HPV 16/18 genotyping
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A. Repeat HPV test in 12 months

Under the NHS Cervical Screening Programme primary HPV testing pathway, a sample positive for high-risk HPV with negative cytology is managed with early recall at 12 months. Two further annual HPV tests are offered if needed; persistent HPV at the 24-month repeat triggers colposcopy. Direct colposcopy is reserved for HPV-positive samples with cytological abnormality. Takeaway: HPV-positive, cytology-negative on NHS primary screening is followed up at 12 months, not by immediate colposcopy.

Remember

NHS primary HPV screening: HPV-positive with negative cytology is recalled at 12 months for repeat HPV testing.

Question 5General practice and primary healthcare

A 22-year-old woman attends her GP asking about HPV vaccination. She missed her school year due to chronic illness absence and has never been vaccinated. She has not yet been sexually active. According to the UK schedule, what is the most appropriate advice?

  1. ARefer for self-funded private vaccination
  2. BOffer one dose under NHS catch-up
  3. CVaccination no longer available on NHS
  4. DTest for HPV before offering vaccination
  5. ERecommend deferring until sexually active
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B. Offer one dose under NHS catch-up

The UK catch-up programme offers free HPV vaccination on the NHS until a person's 25th birthday for those who missed the school programme, regardless of sex. Since 2023 a single nonavalent dose is offered for catch-up under age 25 in immunocompetent individuals. Vaccination before HPV exposure provides the greatest protection, but is still recommended for those already sexually active. Takeaway: NHS HPV catch-up is available up to the 25th birthday at a single dose for immunocompetent recipients.

Remember

UK HPV catch-up: free NHS single-dose vaccination available until the 25th birthday for those who missed the school programme.

Question 6Sexual health

A 27-year-old woman on the combined oral contraceptive pill is diagnosed with active tuberculosis and is started on rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol. She does not wish to become pregnant. What is the most appropriate change to her contraception?

  1. ASwitch to depot medroxyprogesterone acetate intramuscular injection
  2. BSwitch to combined transdermal patch
  3. CSwitch to etonogestrel subdermal implant
  4. DContinue COCP with additional barrier contraception until 4 weeks after stopping rifampicin
  5. ESwitch to progestogen-only pill
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A. Switch to depot medroxyprogesterone acetate intramuscular injection

Rifampicin is a potent CYP3A4 inducer that markedly reduces serum levels of all hormonal contraceptives metabolised by this pathway, including COCP, POP, patch, ring and implant; contraceptive failure is well documented. Switching to a method unaffected by enzyme inducers is advised: depot medroxyprogesterone acetate, copper IUD, or levonorgestrel IUS. Enzyme induction persists for around 4 weeks after rifampicin discontinuation.

Remember

Rifampicin induces CYP3A4 and lowers efficacy of COCP/POP/patch/implant; switch to DMPA injection, copper IUD or LNG-IUS.

Question 7Obstetrics and gynaecology

A 24-year-old woman on the combined pill has 3 months of postcoital spotting and clear discharge. Speculum examination shows a smooth, red, velvety area around the external os that bleeds slightly on contact with a swab. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AChlamydial cervicitis
  2. BCervical intraepithelial neoplasia
  3. CCervical ectropion
  4. DCervical carcinoma
  5. EEndocervical polyp
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C. Cervical ectropion

Oestrogen causes the columnar epithelium of the endocervical canal to evert onto the ectocervix, where it appears as a smooth red ring around the os because a single layer of columnar cells lets the underlying vessels show through. The exposed columnar epithelium is fragile and mucus-secreting, which explains contact bleeding after intercourse and a clear discharge in a young woman on the combined pill. Chlamydial cervicitis is the main alternative and must be excluded with a swab, but it produces a mucopurulent discharge and a diffusely inflamed, friable cervix rather than a smooth velvety ring. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is not visible to the naked eye, and carcinoma is an irregular, friable or ulcerated growth.

Remember

A smooth red velvety ring around the os with contact bleeding in a young woman on oestrogen is cervical ectropion, exposed columnar epithelium rather than disease.

Question 8Obstetrics and gynaecology

A 27-year-old woman on the combined pill has had 4 months of bleeding after intercourse. Her last cervical screening test 2 years ago was normal. Speculum examination shows a smooth red area around the external os with no other abnormality. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. AChange to a progestogen-only method
  2. BUrgent referral to colposcopy
  3. CRepeat cervical screening sample
  4. DCryotherapy to the ectropion
  5. ETest for chlamydia and gonorrhoea
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E. Test for chlamydia and gonorrhoea

Postcoital bleeding in a sexually active young woman must be assumed to be infective until proven otherwise, because chlamydia causes cervicitis and contact bleeding, is common, and is easily treated, and an ectropion does not prove that the bleeding is benign. A vulvovaginal swab for chlamydia and gonorrhoea is therefore the first step once the cervix has been inspected. If infection is excluded and the bleeding persists, changing away from oestrogen-containing contraception or ablating the ectropion can be considered. Screening is a test for pre-malignant change in asymptomatic women and is not a diagnostic test for bleeding, so it is not repeated early, and colposcopy referral is for an abnormal screening result or a cervix that looks suspicious of cancer.

Remember

Postcoital bleeding with an ectropion is treated only after chlamydia and gonorrhoea have been excluded; the ectropion is a finding, not yet the explanation.

Question 9Sexual health

A 25-year-old woman initiates oral PrEP with tenofovir disoproxil/emtricitabine. Per BHIVA/BASHH PrEP monitoring guidance, which renal investigation should be performed at baseline and repeated at intervals during therapy?

  1. A24-hour urinary protein collection
  2. BUrinary tubular marker panel (NGAL, KIM-1)
  3. CSerum creatinine with estimated glomerular filtration rate
  4. DRenal ultrasound
  5. ECystatin C-based GFR estimation
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C. Serum creatinine with estimated glomerular filtration rate

Tenofovir disoproxil can cause proximal tubulopathy and rarely Fanconi syndrome. Baseline serum creatinine and eGFR are recommended, repeated annually in low-risk users (under 40, eGFR 90 or above, no renal risk factors) and 6-monthly or more often in others, with discontinuation considered if eGFR falls below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2. Routine urinalysis for proteinuria is not recommended when baseline renal function is normal.

Remember

PrEP monitoring: baseline serum creatinine and eGFR, then annually if low risk (under 40, eGFR ≥90, no renal risk factors) or 6-monthly otherwise; stop tenofovir disoproxil if eGFR <60.

Question 10Sexual health

A 28-year-old woman who is 14 weeks into her first pregnancy attends her GP with several small soft genital warts that have appeared over the past month. She has had no bleeding or discharge and her early pregnancy has been uncomplicated. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

  1. ASinecatechins ointment
  2. BCryotherapy in clinic
  3. CImiquimod cream
  4. DTopical fluorouracil
  5. EPodophyllotoxin cream
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B. Cryotherapy in clinic

Cryotherapy is the preferred first-line treatment for anogenital warts in pregnancy because the topical agents commonly used in non-pregnant patients are either teratogenic, contraindicated, or have insufficient safety data. Clinic-delivered ablative therapy (cryotherapy or electrosurgery) is recommended where treatment is needed during pregnancy. Many warts also enlarge during pregnancy and may regress postpartum. Takeaway: cryotherapy is the safest first-line treatment for anogenital warts in pregnancy.

Remember

Anogenital warts in pregnancy: cryotherapy is first-line; podophyllotoxin and imiquimod are avoided.

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