Respiratory medicine runs through the UKMLA from the breathless patient in the emergency department to the asthma review in general practice. These ten cover asthma severity, pneumothorax, occupational asthma, empyema and lung cancer referral.
Pick your answer, then open the explanation.
Question 1Acute and emergency
A 24-year-old man with known asthma is brought to the emergency department with an acute exacerbation. His oxygen saturations are 94% on air, respiratory rate is 28 and peak flow is 45% of predicted. Which additional finding would indicate a life-threatening (rather than acute severe) exacerbation?
- APeak expiratory flow 40% of predicted
- BSilent chest on auscultation
- CUse of sternocleidomastoid accessory muscles
- DLoud polyphonic wheeze throughout both lung fields
- EPulsus paradoxus of 15 mmHg
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B. Silent chest on auscultation
Asthma severity is classified by a discrete set of life-threatening features: silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, exhaustion, altered consciousness, hypotension, arrhythmia, SpO2 below 92% and PEF below 33% of predicted. A silent chest reflects airflow so reduced that no audible wheeze is generated and is the classic auscultatory marker that an acute severe attack has crossed into life-threatening territory.
Remember
A silent chest in acute asthma signifies critically reduced airflow and mandates immediate senior and critical care input.
Question 2Clinical imaging
A 60-year-old man with pneumonia has a fluid-containing collection at the right lung base on contrast CT. The team is unsure whether it is a lung abscess or an empyema. Which CT feature most favours an empyema?
- AA round cavity with a thick, irregular wall
- BAn air-fluid level within the collection
- CConsolidation in the surrounding lung
- DA lenticular collection forming an obtuse angle with the chest wall
- EA collection making an acute angle with the chest wall
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D. A lenticular collection forming an obtuse angle with the chest wall
An empyema lies in the pleural space, so it is lenticular, meets the chest wall at an obtuse angle, compresses and displaces the adjacent lung and shows the split-pleura sign of separated, enhancing visceral and parietal pleura. A lung abscess is a parenchymal cavity, so it is round with a thick irregular wall, makes an acute angle with the chest wall and destroys rather than displaces the surrounding lung. Air-fluid levels can occur in both, so they do not discriminate. The distinction matters because an empyema needs a chest drain and an abscess does not.
Remember
A lenticular, obtuse-angled pleural collection with the split-pleura sign is an empyema; a round, thick-walled, acute-angled cavity is a lung abscess.
Question 3Cancer
A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-week history of coughing up small amounts of fresh blood. He has a 30 pack-year smoking history but no weight loss, chest pain or breathlessness. Examination is unremarkable and observations are normal. According to NICE NG12, what is the most appropriate next step?
- AEmpirical course of oral antibiotics
- BUrgent direct access chest X-ray within 2 weeks
- CSuspected cancer pathway referral for lung cancer
- DWatchful waiting with review in 4 weeks
- ERoutine respiratory outpatient referral
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C. Suspected cancer pathway referral for lung cancer
Anyone aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis is referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for lung cancer. The urgent direct access chest X-ray in 1.1.2 applies to a different group, those aged 40 and over with two or more of cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss or appetite loss, or one or more in an ever-smoker. Haemoptysis is not on that list, and a normal chest X-ray does not exclude lung cancer.
Remember
Unexplained haemoptysis at age 40 or over warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral for lung cancer, not a chest X-ray first.
Question 4Respiratory
A 26-year-old non-smoker with a primary spontaneous right-sided pneumothorax has had successful needle aspiration. A repeat chest X-ray shows significant re-expansion. He is comfortable with oxygen saturations of 98% on air. According to BTS guidelines, what is the appropriate management?
- ARepeat aspiration before discharge
- BInsert a chest drain prophylactically
- CAdmit for 24-hour observation
- DOvernight admission with morning chest X-ray
- EDischarge with outpatient respiratory follow-up
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E. Discharge with outpatient respiratory follow-up
After successful needle aspiration of a pneumothorax with confirmed radiographic re-expansion and a clinically stable, asymptomatic patient, the appropriate management is discharge with outpatient respiratory follow-up. Written safety-net advice, smoking cessation counselling, avoidance of air travel until cleared at review after radiographic resolution, and permanent avoidance of scuba diving unless a definitive surgical procedure has been performed should be provided.
Remember
Following successful pneumothorax aspiration with re-expansion on CXR and a well patient, discharge with outpatient respiratory follow-up is advised.
Question 5Respiratory
A 55-year-old baker presents with wheeze and cough that improve during holidays but return when he goes back to work. Peak flow diary shows a pattern of lower readings on working days. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AReactive airways dysfunction syndrome
- BCOPD
- CHypersensitivity pneumonitis
- DOccupational asthma
- EAllergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
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D. Occupational asthma
Work-related wheeze and cough that improve on holidays and recur on return to work, together with a peak flow diary showing lower readings on working days, is strongly suggestive of occupational asthma, though work-exacerbated pre-existing asthma produces the same pattern and specific IgE or challenge testing is needed to confirm sensitisation. Flour dust is a well-recognised high-molecular-weight sensitiser in bakers (baker's asthma), and serial peak flow monitoring across work and rest periods is the key investigation.
Remember
Serial peak flow monitoring showing consistent deterioration on work days and recovery away from work is the diagnostic hallmark of occupational asthma.
Question 6Respiratory
A patient with severe asthma is on high-dose ICS, LABA, a leukotriene receptor antagonist, and oral prednisolone but remains poorly controlled with frequent exacerbations. Blood eosinophils are elevated at 450 cells/microlitre. What treatment should be considered?
- ALong-term oral azithromycin
- BContinuous nebulised salbutamol
- CBronchial thermoplasty
- DBiologic therapy with anti-IL-5 agent
- ELong-term oral theophylline
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D. Biologic therapy with anti-IL-5 agent
Severe eosinophilic asthma refractory to maximal inhaled and oral maintenance therapy with blood eosinophils ≥300 cells/microlitre and frequent exacerbations meets the NICE criteria for the anti-IL-5 biologics mepolizumab and benralizumab (reslizumab needs 400 cells/microlitre or more with 3 or more exacerbations), which reduce exacerbations and oral steroid burden. This patient's elevated eosinophils at 450 cells/microlitre and poor control despite high-dose ICS/LABA, LTRA and maintenance prednisolone make an anti-IL-5 agent the appropriate next step.
Remember
Blood eosinophils ≥300 cells/microlitre with frequent exacerbations on maximal therapy indicates eligibility for anti-IL-5 biologic therapy in severe asthma.
Question 7Respiratory
A 42-year-old non-smoking man presents with progressive breathlessness. CT chest reveals basal predominant panacinar emphysema. Liver function tests show mildly deranged transaminases. What underlying condition should be investigated?
- AAlpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
- BCystic fibrosis
- CPrimary ciliary dyskinesia
- DCommon variable immunodeficiency
- ELymphangioleiomyomatosis
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A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is the likely diagnosis given early-onset basal panacinar emphysema in a non-smoker combined with deranged transaminases, reflecting both pulmonary (unopposed neutrophil elastase activity) and hepatic (misfolded protein accumulation in hepatocytes) manifestations. Serum alpha-1 antitrypsin level should be tested in any patient developing COPD under 45, in non-smokers, or with a family history.
Remember
Basal panacinar emphysema in a young non-smoker with deranged LFTs should prompt alpha-1 antitrypsin level testing.
Question 8Cancer
A 58-year-old male smoker with a central lung mass develops progressive proximal muscle weakness that paradoxically improves with repeated use. Tendon reflexes are absent but return after sustained contraction. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AMotor neurone disease
- BPolymyositis
- CInclusion body myositis
- DMyasthenia gravis
- ELambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
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E. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a paraneoplastic disorder most commonly associated with small cell lung cancer, caused by autoantibodies against presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels, which impairs acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction. The classic triad of proximal muscle weakness that improves with repeated activity (post-tetanic potentiation), hyporeflexia with reflex return after sustained contraction, and autonomic features makes the diagnosis in a smoker with a central lung mass.
Remember
LEMS weakness and reflexes improve with repeated use, the opposite of myasthenia gravis, and it is strongly linked to small cell lung cancer.
Question 9Respiratory
A 20-year-old man with a history of mild allergic rhinitis develops chest tightness, wheeze and cough that begin 5-10 minutes into football training and resolve within 30 minutes of stopping. He has no urticaria, throat tightness, dizziness or stridor during episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AExercise-induced anaphylaxis
- BVocal cord dysfunction
- CExercise-induced bronchoconstriction
- DExertional supraventricular tachycardia
- EHyperventilation syndrome
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C. Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction
Transient bronchospasm triggered by airway cooling and drying during vigorous exercise produces classic exercise-induced bronchoconstriction, particularly in atopic young people with airway hyperresponsiveness. An inhaled bronchodilator 10-15 minutes pre-exercise (a SABA, or ICS-formoterol in those already on AIR or MART) prevents symptoms; in a person with established asthma, exercise-induced symptoms usually indicate inadequate control and ICS-containing therapy should be reviewed first.
Remember
Chest tightness and wheeze beginning minutes into exercise and settling within 30 minutes of stopping, with no urticaria, stridor or hypotension, is exercise-induced bronchoconstriction; in a person with established asthma it usually signals inadequate control, so review adherence, technique and ICS-containing therapy before relying on pre-exercise bronchodilator prophylaxis.
Question 10Infection
A 62-year-old woman with confirmed influenza A initially improved over 3 days, but on day 6 she returns with high fever, productive cough with rusty sputum, and increased breathlessness. Chest X-ray shows new right lower lobe consolidation. Which organism is most likely responsible for her deterioration?
- AMycoplasma pneumoniae
- BPneumocystis jirovecii
- CStreptococcus pneumoniae
- DStaphylococcus aureus
- EPseudomonas aeruginosa
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C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of post-influenza secondary bacterial pneumonia, classically producing a biphasic illness with rusty sputum and lobar consolidation; influenza damages respiratory epithelium and impairs mucociliary clearance, allowing pneumococcal superinfection. Empirical cover should include S. pneumoniae and S. aureus when bacterial superinfection complicates influenza; co-amoxiclav (given with clarithromycin as first-line for high-severity community-acquired pneumonia) covers both.
Remember
Post-influenza bacterial pneumonia is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, followed by Staphylococcus aureus. Empirical therapy should cover both.
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