Start today's run

United Kingdom and International

Free UKMLA renal and urology questions with explanations

Renal and urology questions mix acute kidney injury with chronic disease and urological emergencies. These ten cover hyperkalaemia, rhabdomyolysis, polycystic kidney disease, pyelonephritis, ACE inhibitor monitoring, diuretic resistance and paraphimosis.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Acute and emergency

A patient with AKI has a serum potassium of 6.8 mmol/L. Which ECG change indicates the highest risk of imminent cardiac arrest?

  1. AWidened QRS complexes
  2. BLoss of P waves
  3. CPeaked T waves
  4. DProlonged PR interval
  5. ESine-wave QRS-T fusion
Show the answerHide the answer

E. Sine-wave QRS-T fusion

Hyperkalaemic ECG changes progress from peaked T waves through PR prolongation and loss of P waves to QRS widening, and finally to a sine-wave pattern where the widened QRS merges with the T wave, the pre-terminal change immediately preceding ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Sine-wave morphology is a peri-arrest emergency mandating immediate IV calcium gluconate for myocardial stabilisation alongside insulin-dextrose to shift potassium.

Remember

Hyperkalaemia with ECG changes is a peri-arrest emergency; give IV calcium gluconate first to stabilise the myocardium, then insulin-dextrose to lower serum potassium.

Question 2Acute and emergency

A 58-year-old man is admitted after being trapped under collapsed scaffolding for six hours. He is haemodynamically stable but his thighs are swollen and tense, and dipstick shows 4+ blood with no red cells on microscopy. Which factor places him at highest risk of acute kidney injury?

  1. AHyperkalaemia from muscle breakdown
  2. BMyoglobinuria from rhabdomyolysis
  3. CHyperphosphataemia from cell lysis
  4. DCompartment syndrome with metabolic acidosis
  5. EIntravascular volume depletion
Show the answerHide the answer

B. Myoglobinuria from rhabdomyolysis

Crush injury with tense, swollen muscle compartments and pigment-positive but cell-negative urine points to rhabdomyolysis; circulating myoglobin is filtered, precipitates with Tamm-Horsfall protein in acidic tubules, and causes direct tubular toxicity plus renal vasoconstriction. Rhabdomyolysis is a discrete major AKI risk factor, distinct from hypovolaemia or electrolyte derangements which act as cofactors rather than the primary insult.

Remember

In rhabdomyolysis, filtered myoglobin causes AKI by precipitating with Tamm-Horsfall protein in acidic tubules and exerting direct tubular toxicity plus renal vasoconstriction; give early aggressive IV fluids and monitor CK and potassium.

Question 3Renal and urology

A 34-year-old man with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease has a clinic blood pressure of 152/94 mmHg on repeated readings. His eGFR is 88 mL/min/1.73m² and urine albumin:creatinine ratio is 8 mg/mmol. Which antihypertensive is most appropriate first-line?

  1. ADoxazosin
  2. BBisoprolol
  3. CBendroflumethiazide
  4. DRamipril
  5. EAmlodipine
Show the answerHide the answer

D. Ramipril

In polycystic kidney disease expanding cysts compress the intrarenal vessels, activating the renin-angiotensin system, so hypertension appears early (often in the twenties or thirties) and accelerates the loss of kidney function. An ACE inhibitor (or an angiotensin receptor blocker) is the first-line antihypertensive because it lowers systemic and intraglomerular pressure and reduces albuminuria, addressing the mechanism rather than just the number. Amlodipine would lower the blood pressure equally but does nothing for renin-driven glomerular hypertension or albuminuria. Potassium and creatinine should be checked one to two weeks after starting.

Remember

Hypertension in polycystic kidney disease is renin-driven, so an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) is the first-line antihypertensive.

Question 4Renal and urology

A 45-year-old man presents with bilateral flank pain and haematuria. Ultrasound shows bilaterally enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts of varying sizes. His father required dialysis at age 50. His eGFR is 48 mL/min. Liver ultrasound shows several hepatic cysts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AAcquired cystic kidney disease
  2. BAutosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
  3. CSimple renal cysts
  4. DAutosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
  5. EVon Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Show the answerHide the answer

B. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

This patient has autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), evidenced by bilateral enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts, hepatic cysts, reduced eGFR and a paternal history of dialysis, fulfilling the Ravine/Pei-Ravine ultrasound criteria in the context of a positive family history. ADPKD is caused by mutations in PKD1 (around 85%) or PKD2, and progresses to end-stage renal disease in many patients by later middle age.

Remember

Bilateral enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts plus hepatic cysts and a family history of renal failure is characteristic of ADPKD.

Question 5Renal and urology

A 60-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has fever 39°C, rigors, right loin pain, dysuria and frequency. She has a tender right costovertebral angle. Urinalysis shows nitrites, leukocytes and blood. She is haemodynamically stable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AAppendicitis
  2. BAcute pyelonephritis
  3. CSimple cystitis
  4. DRenal stone without infection
  5. EEmphysematous pyelonephritis
Show the answerHide the answer

B. Acute pyelonephritis

The triad of high fever with rigors, unilateral loin pain with costovertebral angle tenderness, and lower urinary tract symptoms with a positive urinalysis (nitrites, leucocytes) indicates acute pyelonephritis, an upper urinary tract infection. Prompt empirical antibiotics are recommended (e.g. oral cefalexin, or ciprofloxacin only if other first-choice antibiotics are unsuitable, or IV therapy if unable to tolerate oral or systemically unwell), with imaging to exclude obstruction in diabetic or deteriorating patients.

Remember

Fever with rigors, loin pain and CVA tenderness plus pyuria defines acute pyelonephritis, distinguishing it from simple cystitis.

Question 6Cardiovascular

A 65-year-old man is started on ramipril for hypertension. Which monitoring blood test is most important within 1 to 2 weeks of starting?

  1. ASodium, magnesium, and bicarbonate
  2. BRenin and aldosterone
  3. CLiver function tests
  4. DRandom plasma glucose
  5. EUrea, creatinine, and potassium
Show the answerHide the answer

E. Urea, creatinine, and potassium

ACE inhibitors can precipitate acute kidney injury and hyperkalaemia, especially in older patients or those with renal impairment. Check urea, creatinine and potassium before starting and 1 to 2 weeks after initiation or dose titration; a creatinine rise of less than 30% (or eGFR fall of less than 25%) is acceptable, a potassium of 6.0 mmol/L or more means stopping the drug (once other hyperkalaemia-promoting medicines have been discontinued), and a creatinine rise of 30% or more (or eGFR fall of 25% or more) should prompt investigation of other causes such as volume depletion or NSAIDs and, if none is found, stopping the drug or reducing to a previously tolerated dose.

Remember

ACE inhibitor initiation requires U&E check at baseline and 1 to 2 weeks after starting or each dose increase.

Question 7Cardiovascular

A 65-year-old man with severe chronic heart failure (eGFR 35 mL/min/1.73m²) remains grossly oedematous despite high-dose intravenous furosemide. The consultant wishes to add a second diuretic acting at a different nephron segment to overcome distal sodium reabsorption. Which drug is most appropriate?

  1. ASpironolactone
  2. BAmiloride
  3. CTolvaptan
  4. DMetolazone
  5. EAcetazolamide
Show the answerHide the answer

D. Metolazone

Metolazone is a thiazide-like diuretic blocking the sodium-chloride cotransporter (NCC) in the distal convoluted tubule; combined with a loop diuretic it produces sequential nephron blockade, overcoming the compensatory distal sodium reabsorption that limits loop monotherapy. Unlike true thiazides, metolazone retains efficacy at low eGFR, making it the preferred UK adjunct at 2.5–5 mg given 30 minutes before furosemide with close electrolyte monitoring.

Remember

Metolazone retains diuretic efficacy at low eGFR and is the preferred thiazide-like adjunct to loop diuretics for sequential nephron blockade in diuretic-resistant heart failure.

Question 8Renal and urology

A 79-year-old man had a urinary catheter inserted 8 hours ago. He now has a painful, swollen glans with a tight, oedematous ring of tissue proximal to it, and no foreskin can be seen covering the glans. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ABalanoposthitis
  2. BPriapism
  3. CParaphimosis
  4. DPenile cellulitis
  5. EPhimosis
Show the answerHide the answer

C. Paraphimosis

Paraphimosis occurs when a retracted foreskin is left behind the glans, most often after catheterisation or cleaning in an older man; the tight preputial ring obstructs venous and lymphatic return, the glans and distal prepuce swell, and the ring becomes progressively harder to reduce. It is a urological emergency because prolonged constriction leads to arterial compromise and glans necrosis. Balanoposthitis inflames the glans and foreskin together without a constricting ring, priapism is a persistent painful erection of the shaft rather than glans swelling, phimosis is a foreskin that cannot be retracted (the opposite problem), and cellulitis spreads diffusely rather than forming a discrete band behind the glans.

Remember

A swollen painful glans with a tight oedematous ring behind it after catheterisation is paraphimosis, an emergency caused by a foreskin left retracted.

Question 9Child health

An 8-year-old boy has a 6-month history of a progressively tightening foreskin with a thin, spraying urinary stream and two episodes of balanitis. On examination the preputial opening is a pale, sclerotic, non-distensible ring, and there are white atrophic patches on the glans. What is the most appropriate management?

  1. ACircumcision
  2. BPotent topical corticosteroid for 6 weeks
  3. CPreputioplasty
  4. DReassurance and review at 10 years
  5. EDaily gentle retraction of the foreskin
Show the answerHide the answer

A. Circumcision

A pale, sclerotic, non-distensible preputial ring with white atrophic patches on the glans is lichen sclerosus of the foreskin (balanitis xerotica obliterans), the commonest cause of pathological phimosis in boys. Unlike physiological phimosis it does not resolve, it obstructs the stream and predisposes to recurrent balanitis, and it is the main absolute indication for circumcision, which removes the diseased tissue and provides histological confirmation. Topical steroids can help a non-scarred tight foreskin but rarely reverse established scarring with obstructive symptoms. Preputioplasty is avoided in lichen sclerosus because the disease recurs in the retained foreskin. The urethral meatus can also be involved, so the boy needs follow-up for meatal stenosis after surgery.

Remember

A scarred, pale, sclerotic preputial ring with glans involvement is lichen sclerosus (BXO), a pathological phimosis for which circumcision is the definitive treatment.

Question 10Renal and urology

A 52-year-old man has an abdominal ultrasound for dyspepsia that shows a 3 cm anechoic, thin-walled lesion in the right kidney with posterior acoustic enhancement and no septations, calcification or solid component. He has no haematuria and normal renal function. What is the most appropriate management?

  1. AReferral to urology for cyst aspiration
  2. BRepeat ultrasound in 12 months
  3. CMRI of the abdomen
  4. DCT kidneys with intravenous contrast
  5. EReassure; no follow-up imaging required
Show the answerHide the answer

E. Reassure; no follow-up imaging required

A lesion that is anechoic, has a thin smooth wall, shows posterior acoustic enhancement and contains no septations, calcification or solid tissue is a simple renal cyst (Bosniak category I). These are benign, extremely common with age, and need no follow-up or referral. Further cross-sectional imaging with contrast is reserved for cysts with complex features, such as thick or irregular walls, multiple or thick septa, calcification or an enhancing solid component, because those features raise the possibility of cystic renal cell carcinoma. Aspiration or deroofing is considered only for large cysts causing pain, obstruction or hypertension.

Remember

A simple renal cyst on ultrasound (anechoic, thin-walled, no septa, calcification or solid part) is benign and needs no follow-up.

WardRun has more than 400 questions that touch renal and urology, mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map. For a mix from every area, try ten questions from across the map.

A new set every day

6,800+ questions mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map, free every day with every answer explained. Climb your medical school's table.

Start today's run Download on the App Store

More articles