Perioperative medicine and anaesthesia questions cover the patient before, during and after an operation, and the sick patient on the way to theatre. These ten cover oxygen in COPD, antiplatelets before surgery, local anaesthetic toxicity, transfusion reactions, necrotising fasciitis and HELLP syndrome.
Pick your answer, then open the explanation.
Question 1Acute and emergency
A 72-year-old man with a long history of smoking and chronic bronchitis is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with increased breathlessness, cough productive of green sputum, and wheeze over the past two days. He is drowsy but rousable. Observations: respiratory rate 28/min, heart rate 104/min, blood pressure 138/82 mmHg, temperature 37.8°C, SpO2 84% on air. Paramedics have placed him on a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min. What is the most appropriate target oxygen saturation range while awaiting arterial blood gas results?
- A96-100%
- B85-88%
- C94-98%
- D88-92%
- E90-94%
Show the answerHide the answer
D. 88-92%
In patients at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure such as those with COPD, an initial target SpO2 of 88-92% is recommended pending arterial blood gas results. This balances adequate tissue oxygenation against the risk of worsening type 2 respiratory failure from loss of hypoxic drive and V/Q mismatch. Controlled oxygen should be delivered via a 24% or 28% Venturi mask rather than a non-rebreather.
Remember
Target SpO2 88-92% in patients at risk of hypercapnia (COPD, obesity hypoventilation, neuromuscular disease) until ABG is available.
Question 2Acute and emergency
A 72-year-old man with a background of severe COPD is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with worsening breathlessness over 24 hours. He is drowsy and has a flapping tremor. On arrival, respiratory rate is 8/min, oxygen saturations 96% on a 60% Venturi mask applied by paramedics, and he has widespread wheeze on auscultation. Which investigation should be performed most urgently?
- AVenous blood gas
- BCT pulmonary angiogram
- CArterial blood gas
- DChest X-ray
- EPortable spirometry
Show the answerHide the answer
C. Arterial blood gas
This patient has signs of type 2 respiratory failure (drowsiness, asterixis, respiratory rate 8/min) likely precipitated by uncontrolled high-flow oxygen in a chronic CO2 retainer, and an arterial blood gas is required immediately to confirm hypercapnia and acidosis, guide controlled oxygen titration to SpO2 88-92%, and identify the need for NIV.
Remember
In suspected type 2 respiratory failure from oxygen-induced hypercapnia in COPD, ABG is the most urgent investigation to guide oxygen titration and NIV.
Question 3Clinical haematology
A 72-year-old woman underwent elective drug-eluting stent insertion for stable angina 8 months ago and takes aspirin and clopidogrel. She is listed for an elective total knee replacement in 3 weeks. What is the most appropriate perioperative antiplatelet plan?
- AStop aspirin and clopidogrel 10 days preoperatively
- BStop aspirin and clopidogrel, bridge with LMWH
- CContinue aspirin and clopidogrel through surgery
- DContinue aspirin, stop clopidogrel 7 days preoperatively
- EContinue clopidogrel, stop aspirin 7 days preoperatively
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Continue aspirin, stop clopidogrel 7 days preoperatively
Aspirin should be continued perioperatively in patients with coronary stents whenever bleeding risk permits, while stopping the P2Y12 inhibitor (clopidogrel 7 days, ticagrelor 3–5 days, prasugrel 7 days) before surgery. After 6 months from DES insertion the elective stent thrombosis risk has fallen sufficiently that this strategy balances thrombotic and bleeding risks, and elective surgery can be timed once the P2Y12 inhibitor has been held.
Remember
After 6 months from drug-eluting stent insertion, continue aspirin and stop clopidogrel 7 days before non-cardiac surgery.
Question 4Perioperative medicine and anaesthesia
A 6-month-old infant undergoes venepuncture on the paediatric day unit after topical EMLA (lidocaine and prilocaine) cream was applied to both antecubital fossae. Four hours after the procedure, the nurse notes the baby has become dusky around the lips and fingertips and is mildly irritable but not in respiratory distress. Heart rate is 160/min, respiratory rate 40/min, SpO2 86% on air, rising to 88% on 15 L/min oxygen via a non-rebreathe mask. Chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. What is the most likely cause of the cyanosis?
- ACyanotic congenital heart disease
- BPulmonary aspiration causing hypoxia
- CCarboxyhaemoglobinaemia
- DSulfhaemoglobinaemia
- EMethaemoglobinaemia
Show the answerHide the answer
E. Methaemoglobinaemia
Topical prilocaine (in EMLA) is metabolised to o-toluidine, which oxidises haemoglobin iron from the ferrous to ferric state, producing methaemoglobin that cannot bind oxygen and causes cyanosis with an oxygen-refractory saturation gap. Infants under 12 months are particularly vulnerable due to immature NADH-cytochrome b5 reductase activity and higher levels of fetal haemoglobin, which is more readily oxidised. First-line treatment is IV methylene blue.
Remember
Prilocaine-containing EMLA can precipitate methaemoglobinaemia in young infants because immature NADH-cytochrome b5 reductase cannot reduce oxidised haemoglobin back to its ferrous state.
Question 5Physiology
A 62-year-old woman who has had three pregnancies receives two units of red cells after hip surgery. Her pre-transfusion antibody screen was negative. Eight days later she is jaundiced and her haemoglobin has fallen back to its pre-transfusion level. What best explains the timing of her haemolysis?
- ADonor lymphocytes attacking her bone marrow
- BPrimary IgG response to a donor antigen
- CPreformed IgM anti-A against donor cells
- DDonor antibodies against her own cells
- ESecondary IgG response to a donor antigen
Show the answerHide the answer
E. Secondary IgG response to a donor antigen
Pregnancy exposes a woman to fetal red cell antigens inherited from the father, such as Kidd or Rh antigens, and she may form alloantibodies. Over years these can fall below the level a pre-transfusion screen detects, while memory B cells persist. Transfused red cells carrying the antigen then trigger a secondary, anamnestic response: within several days IgG rises rapidly, coats the donor cells and causes mainly extravascular haemolysis in the spleen. About a week after transfusion the haemoglobin falls back and jaundice appears. A primary response would be slower and weaker.
Takeaway: Delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions reflect an anamnestic IgG response in a previously sensitised patient.
Remember
A delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when re-exposure to a red cell antigen triggers a rapid secondary IgG response from earlier sensitisation.
Question 6Acute and emergency
A 58-year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes attends the emergency department with an 18-hour history of agonising pain in his right inner thigh. Examination reveals a modest area of skin erythema but pain far out of proportion, with crepitus and haemorrhagic blistering. Blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg and lactate is 5.2 mmol/L. After initial resuscitation, which is the most appropriate definitive management?
- ACT-guided percutaneous drainage and intravenous antibiotics
- BIncision and drainage under local anaesthetic
- CHyperbaric oxygen therapy with intravenous antibiotics
- DUrgent surgical debridement with broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- EIntravenous flucloxacillin and limb elevation
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Urgent surgical debridement with broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
This presentation (severe pain out of proportion, crepitus, haemorrhagic bullae and septic shock in a poorly controlled diabetic) is necrotising fasciitis, a surgical emergency where survival depends on rapid source control. Definitive management is urgent theatre debridement of all necrotic tissue combined with broad-spectrum IV antibiotics (typically a carbapenem plus clindamycin for antitoxin effect, per UK sepsis and surgical infection guidance).
Remember
Necrotising fasciitis requires immediate surgical debridement plus broad-spectrum IV antibiotics; antibiotics alone are never sufficient.
Question 7Child health
A 45-year-old man presents with a rapidly worsening severe sore throat, marked odynophagia, drooling, and a muffled voice over the past 12 hours. He is febrile and sitting forward, but has no stridor. His oropharynx looks unremarkable on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- APeritonsillar abscess
- BAcute pharyngitis
- CLaryngeal cancer
- DAdult epiglottitis (supraglottitis)
- EParapharyngeal abscess
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Adult epiglottitis (supraglottitis)
Acute onset of severe odynophagia, drooling, a muffled 'hot potato' voice and fever in an adult who is sitting forward with a relatively normal-looking oropharynx is the classic picture of adult epiglottitis (supraglottitis). Adults often lack the dramatic stridor seen in children because of a wider airway calibre, but airway compromise can develop rapidly. Management follows ENT UK guidance with airway monitoring in HDU or ICU, IV ceftriaxone and dexamethasone.
Remember
Adult epiglottitis classically presents with the 4 Ds (dysphagia, drooling, dysphonia, distress) and a deceptively normal oropharynx, so a normal throat examination does not exclude supraglottic airway compromise.
Question 8Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 32-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks gestation with known pre-eclampsia attends triage with severe epigastric pain, nausea, and one episode of vomiting. Her BP is 165/110 mmHg and she has mild right upper quadrant tenderness. Urinalysis shows 3+ protein. Which complication of pre-eclampsia is most likely to have developed?
- APlacental abruption
- BHELLP syndrome
- CSubcapsular hepatic haematoma
- DAcute fatty liver of pregnancy
- EEclampsia
Show the answerHide the answer
B. HELLP syndrome
In a pre-eclamptic woman, severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain with nausea is the classic clinical herald of HELLP syndrome, reflecting hepatic sinusoidal microangiopathic injury and Glisson's capsule stretch before the haematological triad becomes overt. Any pre-eclamptic patient with epigastric pain warrants urgent FBC, LFTs, LDH, and a film to confirm haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, with definitive management being delivery alongside magnesium sulfate prophylaxis and BP control.
Remember
Severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain in a pre-eclamptic woman should be assumed to be HELLP syndrome until bloods prove otherwise.
Question 9Cardiovascular
A 66-year-old man with long-standing severe aortic stenosis attends clinic with a three-month history of worsening exertional dyspnoea and orthopnoea, and now wakes breathless at night. He has not had chest pain or syncope. Which complication of his valve disease best explains his current presentation?
- AAtrial fibrillation
- BAortic dissection
- CInfective endocarditis
- DAnaemia from Heyde syndrome
- ECongestive heart failure
Show the answerHide the answer
E. Congestive heart failure
Chronic pressure overload from severe aortic stenosis drives concentric LV hypertrophy that eventually decompensates, producing systolic and diastolic dysfunction with pulmonary congestion (exertional dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea). The onset of heart failure in severe AS is a class I indication for valve intervention, distinguishing it from the arrhythmic, infective, and aortic complications that present very differently.
Remember
The onset of heart failure, syncope, or angina in aortic stenosis signals decompensation and is an indication for aortic valve replacement.
Question 10Infection
A 62-year-old man with generalised tetanus is on the intensive care unit. He has frequent painful spasms of the back and limbs triggered by nursing care. Which drug is first-line to control the spasms?
- AIntravenous diazepam
- BIntravenous dantrolene
- COral baclofen
- DIntravenous magnesium sulfate
- EIntravenous phenytoin
Show the answerHide the answer
A. Intravenous diazepam
Tetanus toxin blocks release of glycine and GABA from spinal inhibitory interneurons, so the spasms are disinhibited motor activity rather than seizures. Benzodiazepines are first-line because they enhance GABA-A signalling, restoring inhibition, and also provide sedation and anxiolysis; diazepam or midazolam are given by intravenous infusion and titrated to control spasms. Magnesium sulfate is a useful adjunct that reduces spasm and autonomic instability but is not first-line on its own, and if spasms threaten ventilation the patient is paralysed and ventilated. Anticonvulsants such as phenytoin have no role because the spasms are not epileptic.
Remember
Benzodiazepines such as intravenous diazepam or midazolam are first-line for tetanus spasms, with magnesium as an adjunct and paralysis with ventilation if severe.
WardRun has more than 150 questions that touch perioperative medicine and anaesthesia, mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map. For a mix from every area, try ten questions from across the map.
A new set every day
6,800+ questions mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map, free every day with every answer explained. Climb your medical school's table.
Start today's run