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Free UKMLA ophthalmology questions with explanations

Ophthalmology questions hinge on which red eye or which loss of vision cannot wait. These ten cover retinal detachment, endophthalmitis after cataract surgery, diabetic eye screening, orbital cellulitis, eyelid cancer and the eyes in Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Ophthalmology

A 58-year-old myopic man reports sudden floaters, flashing lights and a curtain descending over the upper visual field of his left eye over 24 hours. Visual acuity is 6/36 on the affected side. Fundoscopy shows a pale elevated retina with a tear. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

  1. AUrgent ophthalmology referral
  2. BPrescribe topical steroids
  3. CReassure and review in clinic
  4. DIntravitreal anti-VEGF injection
  5. EStart oral acetazolamide
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A. Urgent ophthalmology referral

This presentation of floaters, photopsia, a descending visual field curtain and a pale elevated retina with a tear in a myopic patient is a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment, which requires same-day ophthalmology referral for surgical repair (vitrectomy, scleral buckle or pneumatic retinopexy) per Royal College of Ophthalmologists guidance. Prompt intervention, especially before macular involvement, is critical to preserve vision.

Remember

Suspected retinal detachment mandates same-day ophthalmology referral; macula-on detachments need surgery within 24 hours to preserve central vision.

Question 2Ophthalmology

A 60-year-old man reports a sudden shower of floaters in one eye. Which risk factor is most strongly associated with rhegmatogenous retinal detachment?

  1. AType 2 diabetes mellitus
  2. BChildhood strabismus
  3. CHypermetropia
  4. DHigh myopia
  5. EPosterior vitreous detachment in the fellow eye
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D. High myopia

High myopia is the strongest risk factor for rhegmatogenous retinal detachment: axial elongation of the globe causes peripheral retinal thinning and lattice degeneration, predisposing to retinal tears through which liquefied vitreous tracks into the subretinal space. Other recognised risk factors include previous cataract surgery, ocular trauma and a family history of detachment; acute posterior vitreous detachment is the usual precipitating event, and a previous detachment in the fellow eye carries a comparably high risk.

Remember

High myopia (axial length >26 mm) substantially increases the lifetime risk of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment via lattice degeneration and peripheral retinal thinning.

Question 3Ophthalmology

A patient has cataract surgery. Two weeks later, she develops a painful red eye with reduced vision and a hypopyon (pus level in the anterior chamber). What is the most likely complication?

  1. AToxic anterior segment syndrome (TASS)
  2. BPosterior capsule opacification
  3. CRaised intraocular pressure
  4. DPostoperative endophthalmitis
  5. ERetinal detachment
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D. Postoperative endophthalmitis

A painful red eye with reduced vision and hypopyon occurring within days to weeks of cataract surgery is postoperative endophthalmitis, an intraocular bacterial infection and ophthalmic emergency. It complicates roughly 0.1% of cataract operations and is most often caused by coagulase-negative staphylococci; management per Royal College of Ophthalmologists guidance involves urgent intravitreal vancomycin and ceftazidime, with vitreous sampling and possible vitrectomy.

Remember

Painful red eye with hypopyon and reduced vision after cataract surgery is endophthalmitis until proven otherwise and requires urgent intravitreal antibiotics.

Question 4Ophthalmology

A 60-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes attends her annual diabetic eye screening. Fundus photographs show multiple microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages and venous beading in three quadrants, with cotton wool spots but no new vessels. What is the most likely grade and management plan?

  1. AR2 (pre-proliferative), refer to hospital eye service
  2. BR3 (proliferative), urgent referral to ophthalmology
  3. CM1 (maculopathy), refer to hospital eye service
  4. DR3 (proliferative), continue screening at 6 months
  5. ER1 (background), continue annual screening
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A. R2 (pre-proliferative), refer to hospital eye service

Venous beading in two or more quadrants alongside multiple haemorrhages and cotton wool spots meets the ETDRS '4-2-1' rule for severe non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, graded R2 (pre-proliferative) under the NHS Diabetic Eye Screening Programme. With no new vessels, pre-retinal/vitreous haemorrhage or fibroproliferation, this is not R3. NDESP requires routine referral to the hospital eye service within 13 weeks.

Remember

UK diabetic retinopathy grading: R0 none, R1 background, R2 pre-proliferative (refer), R3 proliferative (urgent refer). Maculopathy is graded separately as M1.

Question 5Ophthalmology

A 29-year-old woman is on day 3 of admission with Stevens-Johnson syndrome affecting 8% of her body surface area. Both eyes are red and painful with a sticky discharge and she cannot open them fully. What is the most appropriate next step for her eyes?

  1. AOral aciclovir
  2. BTopical chloramphenicol drops
  3. CEye padding and review in one week
  4. DTopical antihistamine drops
  5. ESame-day ophthalmology assessment
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E. Same-day ophthalmology assessment

Ocular involvement occurs in most patients with Stevens-Johnson syndrome and is the main cause of long-term disability, because conjunctival inflammation heals with scarring, symblepharon and a dry, damaged ocular surface that can cost sight. Daily ophthalmology review during the acute phase allows lubricants, topical corticosteroids, lysis of adhesions and, in severe cases, amniotic membrane grafting to prevent scarring. The sticky discharge reflects sloughed conjunctival epithelium and inflammation rather than bacterial infection, so an antibiotic drop on its own misses the problem.

Remember

Any ocular symptoms in Stevens-Johnson syndrome need same-day and then daily ophthalmology review to prevent conjunctival scarring and permanent visual loss.

Question 6Child health

A 34-year-old man is reviewed two weeks after hospital admission for orbital cellulitis treated with intravenous antibiotics and drainage of a subperiosteal abscess. He reports that his eye looks better but colours seem 'washed out' in that eye. Which complication should be assessed at ophthalmology follow-up?

  1. AOptic neuropathy
  2. BCataract
  3. CPosterior synechiae from anterior uveitis
  4. DMacular degeneration
  5. ECentral retinal artery occlusion
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A. Optic neuropathy

Desaturation of colour vision following orbital cellulitis suggests optic neuropathy, which can arise from compressive, ischaemic, or inflammatory injury to the optic nerve during the acute infection or associated subperiosteal abscess. Reduced colour perception (particularly red desaturation) and a relative afferent pupillary defect are the earliest clinical signs, so formal ophthalmology assessment with visual acuity, colour plates, and pupillary testing is essential.

Remember

Red desaturation after orbital cellulitis is an early marker of optic neuropathy and warrants urgent ophthalmology review.

Question 7Ophthalmology

A patient with long-standing staphylococcal blepharitis develops a white, crescent-shaped peripheral corneal infiltrate separated from the limbus by a narrow clear zone. What is this complication?

  1. ABand keratopathy
  2. BPterygium
  3. CPhlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
  4. DCorneal abrasion
  5. EMarginal corneal ulcer
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E. Marginal corneal ulcer

Marginal corneal ulcers (marginal keratitis) are a recognised complication of chronic staphylococcal blepharitis, arising from a type III/IV hypersensitivity reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins at the peripheral cornea. They appear as white, circular or crescent-shaped infiltrates near the limbus, typically with a clear zone separating them from the limbal vessels, and respond to topical antibiotic-steroid combinations alongside lid hygiene.

Remember

Marginal keratitis is a sterile hypersensitivity response to staphylococcal exotoxins in chronic blepharitis, producing peripheral corneal infiltrates sparing the limbus.

Question 8Ophthalmology

A 54-year-old man had a scleral buckle repair for rhegmatogenous retinal detachment 6 weeks ago. He now has progressive visual loss and fundoscopy shows new fibrous tissue and traction over the repaired retina. Which complication of retinal detachment repair best explains these findings?

  1. AUveitis
  2. BProliferative vitreoretinopathy
  3. CEndophthalmitis
  4. DCataract
  5. EAge-related macular degeneration
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B. Proliferative vitreoretinopathy

Proliferative vitreoretinopathy (PVR) is the leading long-term complication and cause of failure after rhegmatogenous retinal detachment repair, arising from proliferation of retinal pigment epithelial and glial cells that form contractile fibrous membranes on the retinal surface and within the vitreous, producing tractional redetachment weeks to months postoperatively. Management typically requires pars plana vitrectomy with membrane peeling.

Remember

Proliferative vitreoretinopathy is the commonest cause of failed retinal detachment surgery, presenting with fibrotic membranes and tractional redetachment in the weeks following repair.

Question 9General practice and primary healthcare

A 70-year-old woman presents with a slowly growing, pearly nodule on her lower eyelid. Examination reveals loss of eyelashes in the affected area and fine telangiectasia over the lesion, which has been present for approximately one year. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ABasal cell carcinoma
  2. BChalazion
  3. CSebaceous cyst
  4. DSebaceous gland carcinoma
  5. EXanthelasma
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A. Basal cell carcinoma

A slowly growing pearly nodule with telangiectasia and madarosis (eyelash loss) on the lower eyelid is characteristic of basal cell carcinoma, the most common malignant eyelid tumour. Referral for specialist assessment and biopsy is recommended; suspected BCC is usually referred routinely, with a 2-week-wait referral reserved for lesions where delay could have significant impact, for example because of periocular site.

Remember

Madarosis plus a pearly telangiectatic nodule on the lower eyelid is a red flag for BCC and warrants biopsy.

Question 10General practice and primary healthcare

A 66-year-old man on aspirin 75 mg daily after a myocardial infarction has a painless subconjunctival haemorrhage with normal vision. His blood pressure is 132/80 mmHg. Which advice is correct?

  1. AChloramphenicol drops will speed resolution
  2. BHe must not drive until it has resolved
  3. CA same-day eye clinic review is needed
  4. DStop aspirin until the redness has cleared
  5. EIt will clear by itself within about two weeks
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E. It will clear by itself within about two weeks

A subconjunctival haemorrhage is self-limiting: the blood is reabsorbed over one to two weeks, changing from red to yellow as it fades, and no treatment alters this. Antiplatelet and anticoagulant drugs make the bleed more likely but are continued, because a harmless surface bleed never justifies losing cardiovascular protection. Blood pressure should be checked, as here, and recurrent haemorrhages or bleeding elsewhere warrant a blood count and clotting screen (and an INR check if on warfarin). Vision is unaffected so there is no restriction on driving.

Remember

A subconjunctival haemorrhage clears without treatment in one to two weeks; antiplatelet drugs are continued and blood pressure is checked.

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