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Free UKMLA medicine of older adults questions with explanations

Medicine of older adults covers delirium, falls and frailty, and the law around capacity and safeguarding. These ten cover hypothermia, delirium, giant cell arteritis, crusted scabies, hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state, self-neglect and suspected abuse.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Medicine of older adult

An 80-year-old man admitted for a hip fracture becomes acutely confused, agitated, and disorientated on the second postoperative night. He is pulling at his catheter and trying to climb out of bed. His confusion fluctuates. What is the most important first step in management?

  1. AIncrease his opioid analgesia
  2. BAdminister IM lorazepam for sedation
  3. CPrescribe haloperidol immediately
  4. DApply physical restraints
  5. EIdentify and treat the underlying cause
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E. Identify and treat the underlying cause

Postoperative delirium in an elderly patient with a hip fracture requires identification and treatment of precipitating causes as the immediate priority. Common triggers include infection, pain, constipation, urinary retention, dehydration, electrolyte disturbance, hypoxia, and offending medications; addressing these alongside non-pharmacological measures (reorientation, familiar staff, adequate lighting) is the cornerstone of management.

Remember

Delirium management begins with systematic identification and treatment of the underlying cause; pharmacological sedation is reserved for severe distress or risk of harm when non-pharmacological measures fail.

Question 2Acute and emergency

A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being found on the floor of his unheated flat overnight. He is drowsy, shivering has stopped, and his tympanic temperature is 29.8°C. A 12-lead ECG is performed. Which ECG finding is most characteristic of his condition?

  1. AJ waves (Osborn waves)
  2. BPeaked T waves
  3. CU waves
  4. DSaddle-shaped ST elevation
  5. EDelta waves
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A. J waves (Osborn waves)

J (Osborn) waves are positive deflections at the J point (the junction of the QRS complex and ST segment) and are the classical ECG finding in moderate to severe hypothermia, typically appearing once core temperature falls below 32°C and becoming more prominent with deeper cooling. This patient's core temperature of 29.8°C and environmental exposure make hypothermia the diagnosis; associated features include bradycardia, prolonged PR/QRS/QT intervals and a predisposition to atrial fibrillation.

Remember

J (Osborn) waves at the QRS-ST junction are characteristic of hypothermia, usually appearing once core temperature drops below 32°C.

Question 3Ophthalmology

A 78-year-old woman presents with sudden painless loss of vision in her right eye. Fundoscopy shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot. Over the preceding three weeks she has had bilateral temple pain and pain in her jaw on chewing. ESR is 85 mm/hr and CRP is 60 mg/L. Which diagnosis must be treated immediately?

  1. AGiant cell arteritis
  2. BTakayasu arteritis
  3. CTrigeminal neuralgia
  4. DPolymyalgia rheumatica
  5. EANCA-associated vasculitis
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A. Giant cell arteritis

Central retinal artery occlusion in a patient over 50 with jaw claudication, scalp/temporal tenderness and markedly raised inflammatory markers is giant cell arteritis until proven otherwise, and high-dose glucocorticoids must be started immediately to protect the fellow eye without waiting for temporal artery biopsy. IV methylprednisolone 500 mg–1 g daily for 3 days followed by oral prednisolone 60 mg daily can be considered when there is visual involvement.

Remember

Suspected giant cell arteritis with visual loss is an ophthalmological emergency requiring immediate high-dose glucocorticoids, with IV methylprednisolone considered, to prevent fellow-eye involvement, which can occur within days in up to half of untreated patients.

Question 4Acute and emergency

A 78-year-old man is discharged after an admission with hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state precipitated by a urinary tract infection. He has type 2 diabetes managed with metformin and gliclazide, and lives alone with mild cognitive impairment. Which intervention is most important to reduce his risk of recurrence?

  1. ASwitch metformin to long-acting basal insulin
  2. BSwitch gliclazide to a long-acting sulfonylurea
  3. CProphylactic oral antibiotics for six months
  4. DDaily self-monitoring of capillary blood glucose
  5. EStructured sick-day rules education with carer involvement
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E. Structured sick-day rules education with carer involvement

HHS recurrence in elderly patients is driven by intercurrent illness, dehydration and inappropriate continuation or adjustment of oral hypoglycaemics; structured sick-day rules education delivered with carer involvement addresses all three modifiable factors and is recommended. In patients with cognitive impairment, carer involvement is essential because the patient may not reliably recognise early warning signs or maintain fluid intake.

Remember

Sick-day rules (maintain fluid intake, monitor glucose more frequently, seek help early, and review (not blindly stop) oral hypoglycaemics) are the cornerstone of HHS recurrence prevention, and require carer reinforcement in cognitive impairment.

Question 5Ear, nose and throat

A patient presents with vertigo. Which clinical feature most strongly suggests a central cause such as posterior circulation stroke rather than BPPV?

  1. ASevere vomiting at onset
  2. BPersistent vertigo with associated focal neurological signs
  3. CUnidirectional horizontal nystagmus suppressed by visual fixation
  4. DHorizontal nystagmus that fatigues with repetition
  5. EVertigo precipitated by rolling over in bed
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B. Persistent vertigo with associated focal neurological signs

Central vertigo is suggested by persistent (rather than brief positional) symptoms accompanied by focal neurological deficits such as dysarthria, diplopia, limb ataxia or new sensorimotor signs. The HINTS examination (head impulse, nystagmus, test-of-skew) further differentiates central from peripheral causes in acute vestibular syndrome, with a normal head impulse, direction-changing nystagmus or skew deviation raising concern for stroke.

Remember

Persistent vertigo with focal neurological signs, or an abnormal HINTS exam, points to a central cause rather than BPPV.

Question 6Ophthalmology

A 75-year-old woman presents with gradual painless visual deterioration over two years. She reports difficulty driving at night due to glare and finds colours appear faded. On examination, the red reflex is diminished. What is the definitive treatment?

  1. AYAG laser capsulotomy
  2. BUpdated prescription spectacles
  3. CSelective laser trabeculoplasty
  4. DPhacoemulsification with intraocular lens implantation
  5. EIntravitreal anti-VEGF injection
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D. Phacoemulsification with intraocular lens implantation

Gradual painless visual loss with glare, faded colour vision and a diminished red reflex in an elderly patient indicates lens opacification, and phacoemulsification with intraocular lens implantation is the standard definitive treatment as it removes the cataractous lens and replaces it with a clear prosthetic IOL. No pharmacological agent reverses lens protein cross-linking, so surgery is offered when the cataract impairs daily function.

Remember

Phacoemulsification with intraocular lens implantation is the definitive treatment for visually significant cataract; no medical therapy reverses lens opacification.

Question 7Dermatology

An 80-year-old nursing home resident has widespread thick hyperkeratotic scaly plaques on hands, feet and scalp. She has minimal itching. Microscopy shows numerous mites. She is on long-term oral steroids for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AClassical scabies
  2. BCrusted (Norwegian) scabies
  3. CEczema
  4. DPsoriasis
  5. EErythrodermic seborrhoeic dermatitis
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B. Crusted (Norwegian) scabies

Crusted (Norwegian) scabies is the diagnosis, characterised by hyperkeratotic scaly plaques with a huge mite burden but paradoxically minimal pruritus due to a blunted cell-mediated immune response; it typically occurs in immunosuppressed, elderly or institutionalised patients, as here with long-term corticosteroid use. Combined topical permethrin and oral ivermectin with isolation is advised given high transmissibility.

Remember

Crusted scabies presents with thick hyperkeratotic plaques and little itch in immunosuppressed patients and harbours thousands of mites, unlike classical scabies.

Question 8Medicine of older adult

A 72-year-old woman with diabetes lives alone in squalor and refuses dressing of an infected foot ulcer. Formal assessment shows she understands the risks, including amputation, and can weigh them. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. AAsk her family to arrange a lasting power of attorney for her care
  2. BApply for a Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards authorisation to admit her
  3. CRequest an assessment under the Mental Health Act
  4. DRespect her refusal, keep engaging and, with her knowledge, involve adult social care
  5. ETake no further action because she has capacity to refuse treatment and care
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D. Respect her refusal, keep engaging and, with her knowledge, involve adult social care

A person with capacity is entitled to make an unwise decision, and the Mental Capacity Act does not allow treatment or care to be imposed on her. That does not mean walking away: self-neglect with capacity is still a safeguarding matter under the Care Act, and the expected response is persistent, respectful engagement, building trust, offering the least restrictive support, regular review, and sharing information and raising a safeguarding concern with her knowledge (and normally her agreement) so that a multi-agency plan can be made. Neither the Mental Health Act nor DoLS applies: there is no mental disorder warranting detention, and DoLS can only authorise deprivation of liberty for someone who lacks capacity. Document the capacity assessment, her reasons and the offers made.

Remember

A capacitous adult may refuse care even in self-neglect; the duty is to keep engaging, offer support and involve adult social care with her knowledge, not to walk away or impose treatment.

Question 9Medicine of older adult

An 88-year-old care home resident is admitted dehydrated, with a sacral pressure ulcer exposing bone and 6 kg of unexplained weight loss. Two other residents from the same home have been admitted in a similar state this month. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. AReport the care home to the police
  2. BNotify the Care Quality Commission
  3. CComplete an incident report on the hospital reporting system
  4. DContact the care home manager to review her care plan
  5. ERaise a safeguarding concern with the local authority
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E. Raise a safeguarding concern with the local authority

A pressure ulcer down to bone, dehydration and unexplained weight loss in a dependent resident suggest neglect, and a cluster of similar admissions from one home points to organisational neglect, meaning poor care arising from the practices of an institution. Under the Care Act 2014 the local authority has the statutory duty to make enquiries when an adult with care and support needs is experiencing or at risk of abuse or neglect and cannot protect themselves, so the correct route is a safeguarding concern to the local authority safeguarding team, raised with the hospital safeguarding lead, which coordinates the response and brings in the Care Quality Commission, commissioners and where appropriate the police. Telling the manager or filing an internal incident report can be done in addition, but neither triggers the statutory enquiry. The patient's own views and, if she lacks capacity, her best interests remain central.

Remember

Suspected neglect of a care home resident is reported as a safeguarding concern to the local authority, which holds the Care Act duty to enquire and brings in the CQC and police as needed.

Question 10Medicine of older adult

An 81-year-old man with advanced dementia is admitted with malnutrition and bruising suggestive of physical abuse by his daughter, who is his carer. He lacks capacity to make decisions about his safety, and his daughter, as next of kin, refuses to allow social services to be contacted. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. ADelay the referral until an independent mental capacity advocate has been appointed
  2. BDischarge him home with a district nurse review in one week
  3. CRaise a safeguarding concern with the local authority in his best interests, despite her objection
  4. DApply to the Court of Protection before sharing any information
  5. EAccept her decision as next of kin and plan discharge with additional carer support
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C. Raise a safeguarding concern with the local authority in his best interests, despite her objection

"Next of kin" has no legal authority in England and Wales: only a registered lasting power of attorney for health and welfare, a court-appointed deputy, or a best-interests decision by the responsible clinician under the Mental Capacity Act can act for a person who lacks capacity, and even an attorney cannot veto safeguarding when they are the suspected abuser. For an adult who lacks capacity and may be being abused, sharing information with the local authority safeguarding team is in his best interests and is expected under the Care Act; the daughter's objection is recorded but cannot block it, and as the alleged perpetrator she is not an appropriate person to consult about his best interests. The local authority instructs an independent mental capacity advocate where there is no one independent to support him. He must not be discharged back to the setting where the abuse occurred until a protection plan is in place.

Remember

Next of kin has no legal power to refuse safeguarding for an adult who lacks capacity; raise the concern in his best interests, and never discharge back to the alleged abuser without a protection plan.

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