Obstetrics and gynaecology questions move between the labour ward, the antenatal clinic and the screening programme. These ten cover preterm labour and ruptured membranes, cholestasis of pregnancy, hyperemesis, ovarian torsion, cervical screening and vulval disease.
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Question 1Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 30-year-old woman at 31 weeks' gestation is in established preterm labour. Which intervention most reduces the baby's risk of respiratory distress syndrome?
- AIntramuscular betamethasone
- BIntravenous magnesium sulfate
- COral erythromycin
- DOral nifedipine
- EIntravenous benzylpenicillin
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A. Intramuscular betamethasone
A course of antenatal corticosteroid given when preterm birth is expected accelerates maturation of fetal type II pneumocytes and surfactant production, cutting the risk of respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular haemorrhage, necrotising enterocolitis and neonatal death. Benefit is greatest when birth occurs 24 hours to 7 days after the first dose. Steroids are offered when preterm birth is anticipated between 24 and 34 weeks and considered up to about 36 weeks. Magnesium sulfate is given to the same women for a different reason, neuroprotection against cerebral palsy, and has no effect on lung maturity.
Remember
Antenatal betamethasone given before anticipated preterm birth reduces neonatal respiratory distress syndrome by accelerating surfactant production.
Question 2Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 31-year-old woman at 32 weeks gestation has confirmed preterm prelabour rupture of membranes. She is apyrexial with a normal CTG. Which drug should be prescribed to reduce her risk of chorioamnionitis?
- AIntravenous benzylpenicillin
- BOral erythromycin
- COral nitrofurantoin
- DOral co-amoxiclav
- EOral metronidazole
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B. Oral erythromycin
In preterm prelabour rupture of membranes, prophylactic oral erythromycin is given for up to 10 days or until established labour, because it reduces chorioamnionitis and prolongs the latency to delivery. Co-amoxiclav is specifically avoided because it was associated with an increased rate of neonatal necrotising enterocolitis in the ORACLE trial. Intravenous benzylpenicillin is intrapartum prophylaxis against group B streptococcus once labour starts, not a latency antibiotic. Metronidazole and nitrofurantoin have no role in preventing intrauterine infection here. If signs of chorioamnionitis develop, prophylaxis is abandoned in favour of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and delivery.
Remember
After preterm prelabour rupture of membranes, oral erythromycin is the prophylactic antibiotic that reduces chorioamnionitis; co-amoxiclav is avoided because of the link with neonatal necrotising enterocolitis.
Question 3Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 29-year-old woman at 33 weeks' gestation has 2 weeks of intense itching of the palms and soles, worse at night, with no rash. ALT 74 U/L, bilirubin 18 micromol/L. Which investigation is most useful to confirm the diagnosis?
- AAnti-mitochondrial antibody
- BViral hepatitis serology
- CUltrasound of the liver and biliary tree
- DSerum bile acids
- EUrine protein:creatinine ratio
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D. Serum bile acids
Pruritus without a rash in the third trimester, typically of the palms and soles and worse at night, is the classic presentation of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. The diagnosis is confirmed by a raised non-fasting serum bile acid concentration (19 micromol/L or above) in the absence of another cause; transaminases may be mildly raised and jaundice is uncommon. Bile acids matter beyond diagnosis because the peak level stratifies stillbirth risk and dictates the timing of birth. Ultrasound and hepatitis serology help exclude other causes when the picture is atypical but neither confirms cholestasis of pregnancy.
Remember
Third-trimester itch without a rash is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy until proved otherwise; confirm with serum bile acids.
Question 4Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 31-year-old woman at 11 weeks' gestation is admitted with hyperemesis gravidarum and a serum potassium of 3.1 mmol/L. Intravenous fluids with potassium, regular cyclizine and thiamine are prescribed. Which additional measure should be prescribed?
- AOral prednisolone course
- BIntravenous glucose infusion
- CNasogastric tube feeding
- DLow molecular weight heparin
- ETotal parenteral nutrition
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D. Low molecular weight heparin
Pregnancy is prothrombotic and hyperemesis adds dehydration, immobility and hospital admission, so every woman admitted with hyperemesis gravidarum should receive thromboprophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin unless contraindicated, stopped on discharge once she is mobile and rehydrated. The other core measures are isotonic crystalloid with potassium replacement, a regular antiemetic and thiamine to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Corticosteroids are third-line, for women still vomiting despite combinations of standard antiemetics. Enteral or parenteral nutrition is reserved for the rare woman who continues to lose weight despite all of this, and glucose-containing fluids are avoided as the initial fluid because they can precipitate Wernicke's encephalopathy in a thiamine-depleted woman and do not correct sodium.
Remember
Women admitted with hyperemesis gravidarum need LMWH thromboprophylaxis alongside fluids with potassium, antiemetics and thiamine.
Question 5Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 30-year-old woman at 37 weeks' gestation attends with no fetal movements for 24 hours. The midwife cannot detect a fetal heartbeat with a handheld Doppler. What is the most appropriate next step?
- ARepeat handheld Doppler auscultation with a senior midwife
- BUmbilical artery Doppler assessment
- CCardiotocography for 20 minutes
- DAuscultation with a Pinard stethoscope
- EReal-time ultrasound scan to assess fetal cardiac activity
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E. Real-time ultrasound scan to assess fetal cardiac activity
Intrauterine death must be confirmed by real-time ultrasound demonstrating absence of fetal cardiac activity, performed by someone trained to do so, because auscultation and CTG can record the maternal pulse or placental flow and be falsely reassuring or falsely alarming. The scan is done promptly, the finding is explained to the woman clearly and honestly using plain words such as 'died', ideally with her partner present or contacted, and a second scan or opinion is offered if she wishes. Repeated attempts with Doppler or a Pinard prolong the uncertainty without excluding death, and a CTG cannot make the diagnosis. Once death is confirmed, the bereavement midwife is involved and the discussion moves to the timing and method of birth and the investigations that will be offered.
Remember
Suspected intrauterine death is confirmed by real-time ultrasound showing no fetal cardiac activity, not by Doppler auscultation or CTG.
Question 6Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 32-year-old woman is found to have vasa praevia on a transvaginal ultrasound at 20 weeks' gestation. Which of the following is most strongly associated with this finding?
- AVelamentous cord insertion
- BBilobed or succenturiate placenta
- CCircumvallate placenta
- DPlacenta accreta
- ESingle umbilical artery
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A. Velamentous cord insertion
Vasa praevia occurs when unprotected fetal vessels traverse the membranes over or near the internal cervical os, and velamentous cord insertion, where the umbilical cord inserts into the chorioamniotic membranes rather than the placental disc, is the strongest associated risk factor. Other recognised associations include bilobed or succenturiate-lobed placentas, low-lying second-trimester placenta, multiple pregnancy, and IVF conception.
Remember
Velamentous cord insertion is the strongest risk factor for vasa praevia, as unprotected fetal vessels run through the membranes.
Question 7Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 17-year-old girl has sudden, severe right iliac fossa pain that began 3 hours ago and has vomited four times. Her last period, 10 days ago, was normal. She is afebrile with a tender right adnexal mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AEctopic pregnancy
- BPelvic inflammatory disease
- CRuptured ovarian cyst
- DAcute appendicitis
- EOvarian torsion
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E. Ovarian torsion
Abrupt, severe, unilateral lower abdominal pain with repeated vomiting and a tender adnexal mass in an adolescent is ovarian torsion until proven otherwise. The ovary twists on its vascular pedicle, usually because a cyst or enlarged ovary acts as a lead point, and venous congestion followed by arterial compromise produces intense pain and reflex vomiting. Torsion is a surgical emergency because ovarian salvage falls with every hour of ischaemia. A ruptured cyst causes sudden pain too, but the pain tends to ease rather than persist and there is no enlarging tender mass; appendicitis builds over hours with anorexia and fever; and the recent normal period makes ectopic pregnancy unlikely.
Remember
Sudden severe unilateral pelvic pain with vomiting and a tender adnexal mass in a young woman is ovarian torsion until proven otherwise.
Question 8Obstetrics and gynaecology
A 41-year-old woman attends for routine cervical screening. The sample is reported as high-risk HPV positive, but the cytology is reported as inadequate because of insufficient cells for assessment. What is the most appropriate next step?
- AReturn to routine 5-yearly recall
- BRepeat the sample in 12 months
- CRefer directly for colposcopy
- DRepeat the sample in 3 months
- ERepeat HPV testing without cytology
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D. Repeat the sample in 3 months
When the high-risk HPV test is positive but the reflex cytology is inadequate, the cytology cannot triage the result, so the whole sample is repeated no sooner than 3 months to allow cellular regeneration. If cytology is again inadequate on the repeat sample, referral for colposcopy follows. The short interval applies specifically to inadequate samples, distinguishing them from the 12-month surveillance pathway used when cytology is adequate and normal.
Remember
HPV-positive with inadequate cytology: repeat the whole sample in 3 months; persistent inadequacy on repeat leads to colposcopy.
Question 9Endocrine and metabolic
A 27-year-old woman with polycystic ovary syndrome attends for review of hirsutism. Her BMI is 36 kg/m². Total testosterone is at the upper limit of normal, sex hormone-binding globulin is low and the free androgen index is raised. Which best explains the low sex hormone-binding globulin?
- AOestrogen deficiency
- BElevated luteinising hormone secretion
- CHyperprolactinaemia
- DInsulin resistance with compensatory hyperinsulinaemia
- EAdrenal androgen excess
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D. Insulin resistance with compensatory hyperinsulinaemia
Insulin suppresses hepatic synthesis of sex hormone-binding globulin. In an obese woman with polycystic ovary syndrome, insulin resistance drives high circulating insulin, the globulin falls, and a normal total testosterone leaves a large free, biologically active fraction; this is why the free androgen index is a better marker of androgen excess than total testosterone. Insulin also stimulates theca cell androgen production directly. Raised LH increases ovarian androgen output but does not regulate the binding globulin, and oestrogen, which raises it, is not deficient in this condition.
Remember
In polycystic ovary syndrome hyperinsulinaemia suppresses hepatic sex hormone-binding globulin, raising free testosterone even when total testosterone is normal.
Question 10Cancer
A 66-year-old woman is seen in gynaecology clinic with a 3 cm ulcerated lesion on the left labium majus that is suspicious of vulval cancer. Which is the most appropriate method to establish the diagnosis?
- AWide local excision of the lesion
- BCytological scrape of the lesion surface
- CFine-needle aspiration of the lesion
- DVulval swab for high-risk HPV
- EPunch biopsy of the lesion edge
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E. Punch biopsy of the lesion edge
Vulval cancer is diagnosed on histology that shows the depth of invasion, so a representative punch or incisional biopsy is taken under local anaesthetic from the edge of the lesion, including a rim of adjacent skin and avoiding the necrotic centre. The lesion is not excised at this stage: a diagnostic excision compromises later planning of margins and sentinel lymph node mapping and removes the landmark the oncology team needs. Cytology and aspiration give cells without architecture and cannot distinguish intraepithelial neoplasia from invasive carcinoma or measure depth, which decides whether the groin nodes must be assessed. HPV status is prognostic but does not make the diagnosis.
Remember
A suspected vulval cancer is diagnosed by punch or incisional biopsy of the lesion edge, not by excision, so that staging and sentinel node planning are not compromised.
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