Neurosciences questions ask you to recognise the pattern and act on it. These ten cover TIA and stroke, venous sinus thrombosis, Wernicke encephalopathy, motor neurone disease and idiopathic intracranial hypertension.
Pick your answer, then open the explanation.
Question 1Neurosciences
A 71-year-old man attends the emergency department having had a transient episode of right-sided weakness and expressive dysphasia lasting 45 minutes, with complete resolution. Examination is now normal and he has no contraindication to antiplatelet therapy. What is the most appropriate initial management?
- AAspirin 300 mg now and admission for inpatient investigation
- BUrgent CT head before starting any antiplatelet therapy
- CClopidogrel 300 mg now and stroke clinic review within 24 hours
- DAspirin 300 mg now and stroke clinic review within 24 hours
- EAspirin 300 mg now and stroke clinic review within 7 days
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D. Aspirin 300 mg now and stroke clinic review within 24 hours
Anyone with a suspected TIA should be given aspirin 300 mg immediately (unless contraindicated) and assessed by a specialist stroke service within 24 hours of symptom onset, because early antiplatelet therapy substantially reduces the high early risk of recurrent stroke. The ABCD2 score is no longer used to stratify urgency. All TIAs are treated as high-risk. Brain imaging is arranged by the specialist service and does not delay aspirin.
Remember
Suspected TIA: give aspirin 300 mg immediately and refer for specialist stroke assessment within 24 hours.
Question 2Cardiovascular
A 74-year-old woman with known paroxysmal atrial fibrillation who is not anticoagulated presents with sudden-onset right-sided weakness and expressive dysphasia. CT head shows a left MCA territory infarct. What is the most likely underlying mechanism of her stroke?
- AWatershed hypoperfusion
- BSmall vessel occlusion
- CArterial dissection
- DLarge artery atherosclerosis
- ECardioembolism
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E. Cardioembolism
In atrial fibrillation, loss of coordinated atrial contraction causes blood stasis in the left atrial appendage and thrombus formation; embolisation to the cerebral circulation typically produces sudden, large-territory cortical infarcts such as this left MCA stroke. Anticoagulation based on CHA2DS2-VASc is recommended to prevent such events, and absence of anticoagulation here makes cardioembolism the most likely mechanism.
Remember
Sudden-onset cortical stroke in a patient with untreated AF is cardioembolic until proven otherwise.
Question 3Neurosciences
A 35-year-old man has a confirmed thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus. MRI shows a small haemorrhagic venous infarct in the left frontal lobe. He is alert with mild right leg weakness. What is the most appropriate treatment?
- ANeurosurgical evacuation of the haematoma
- BIntravenous alteplase
- CAspirin 300 mg daily
- DWithhold anticoagulation and repeat imaging in 48 hours
- ETherapeutic dose low molecular weight heparin
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E. Therapeutic dose low molecular weight heparin
Anticoagulation is the treatment of cerebral venous thrombosis, and a haemorrhagic venous infarct does not change that, because the bleeding is a consequence of venous congestion and the way to stop it worsening is to reopen the venous outflow. Trials showed that heparin improves outcomes even in patients presenting with haemorrhage, and low molecular weight heparin is the usual initial agent, followed by oral anticoagulation for several months. Withholding treatment allows the thrombus to propagate into further sinuses and cortical veins. Thrombolysis and surgery are reserved for patients who deteriorate despite anticoagulation, and antiplatelet therapy is not effective for venous thrombosis.
Remember
Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is anticoagulated with low molecular weight heparin even when there is a haemorrhagic venous infarct.
Question 4Mental health
A 50-year-old alcohol-dependent man presents with confusion, horizontal nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia. He has been drinking heavily and eating minimally for several weeks and appears cachectic. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIV 10% glucose infusion
- BIV naloxone 400 micrograms
- COral thiamine 100 mg three times daily
- DIV lorazepam 2 mg
- EIV thiamine before glucose
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E. IV thiamine before glucose
The triad of confusion, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia in a malnourished alcohol-dependent patient indicates Wernicke's encephalopathy, and parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex) must be given before any glucose because glucose metabolism is thiamine-dependent and can precipitate or worsen Wernicke's encephalopathy, which if untreated progresses to irreversible Korsakoff's syndrome. Parenteral thiamine is recommended for any suspected case in alcohol misuse with malnutrition or decompensation.
Remember
In suspected Wernicke's encephalopathy, always give parenteral thiamine before any glucose load to avoid precipitating or worsening Wernicke's encephalopathy and its irreversible sequel, Korsakoff's syndrome.
Question 5Neurosciences
A 58-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of progressive weakness in his right hand, muscle wasting, and widespread fasciculations. Neurological examination shows mixed upper and lower motor neurone signs with preserved sensation. Which investigation is most useful to support the suspected diagnosis and exclude mimics?
- AMRI cervical spine
- BSerum creatine kinase
- CLumbar puncture
- DElectromyography
- EMuscle biopsy
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D. Electromyography
Electromyography (EMG) is the key investigation in suspected motor neurone disease (MND), demonstrating widespread active denervation (fibrillation potentials, positive sharp waves) and chronic reinnervation (large polyphasic motor unit potentials) across multiple body regions, fulfilling the revised El Escorial/Awaji criteria. Normal sensory nerve conduction alongside these findings supports MND by excluding a sensorimotor neuropathy, but pure motor mimics such as multifocal motor neuropathy with conduction block must still be excluded.
Remember
EMG showing widespread denervation and reinnervation with preserved sensory conduction supports MND per the Awaji criteria.
Question 6Neurosciences
A 29-year-old woman with a BMI of 36 kg/m² is diagnosed with idiopathic intracranial hypertension. She has daily headache and mild papilloedema with visual acuity 6/6 and full visual fields. Which intervention offers the best chance of remission?
- AOptic nerve sheath fenestration
- BAcetazolamide
- CTopiramate
- DSerial lumbar punctures
- EWeight loss
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E. Weight loss
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is driven by obesity, and sustained weight loss (up to about 15% of body weight was needed in one cohort; the amount required is not established) is the only disease-modifying intervention shown to induce lasting remission, normalising intracranial pressure and resolving papilloedema; bariatric surgery achieves this more reliably than dieting in severe obesity. Acetazolamide lowers CSF production and is used to protect vision while weight is lost, particularly with more than mild papilloedema, but it controls rather than cures and is often poorly tolerated. Topiramate is an alternative with the side benefit of weight loss, but in a woman of childbearing potential it can be used only within the Pregnancy Prevention Programme. Serial lumbar punctures give only hours of relief, and surgery (shunting or optic nerve sheath fenestration) is reserved for vision at risk despite medical treatment.
Remember
Weight loss (up to about 15% of body weight) is the only disease-modifying treatment for idiopathic intracranial hypertension; acetazolamide protects vision meanwhile.
Question 7Neurosciences
A 28-year-old woman presents with a new bilateral fine action tremor of the outstretched hands over three months, alongside unintentional weight loss, heat intolerance, palpitations, and loose stools. There are no parkinsonian features. Which investigation is most likely to reveal the underlying cause?
- AThyroid function tests
- BNerve conduction studies
- CSerum copper and caeruloplasmin
- DDaTSCAN
- EMRI brain
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A. Thyroid function tests
A new fine symmetrical action tremor with weight loss, heat intolerance, palpitations, and loose stools points to thyrotoxicosis, a reversible secondary cause of tremor that must be excluded before labelling a tremor as essential. Thyroid function tests showing suppressed TSH with raised free T4 confirm the diagnosis, and treating the thyroid disease resolves the tremor. Identifying secondary causes is a routine step in tremor assessment.
Remember
A new fine action tremor with weight loss, heat intolerance and palpitations suggests thyrotoxicosis; check thyroid function before diagnosing essential tremor.
Question 8Ear, nose and throat
A 47-year-old woman with suspected Meniere's disease has unilateral fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry. An MRI of the internal auditory meatus is requested. What is the principal reason for this scan?
- AExclude vestibular schwannoma
- BDetect cholesteatoma
- CAssess for normal pressure hydrocephalus
- DIdentify otosclerosis
- EConfirm endolymphatic hydrops
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A. Exclude vestibular schwannoma
MRI of the internal auditory meatus in suspected Meniere's disease is performed mainly to exclude a retrocochlear lesion, particularly a vestibular schwannoma, which can mimic the unilateral audiovestibular symptoms. Meniere's remains a clinical diagnosis supported by audiometry, so imaging is about ruling out dangerous alternatives rather than confirming the condition. This is standard UK practice before settling on a Meniere's label.
Remember
In Meniere's, MRI of the internal auditory meatus is done chiefly to exclude a vestibular schwannoma.
Question 9Cancer
A 62-year-old man presents with new-onset seizures and a three-week history of progressive headache. MRI brain reveals multiple ring-enhancing lesions at the grey-white matter junction. Which primary malignancy is most likely to be responsible?
- AColorectal cancer
- BMelanoma
- CRenal cell carcinoma
- DLung cancer
- EBreast cancer
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D. Lung cancer
Lung cancer is the single most common primary source of brain metastases, accounting for approximately 40 to 50% of cases, reflecting both its high population incidence and strong propensity for early haematogenous spread. Multiple ring-enhancing lesions at the grey-white matter junction in an older patient with new seizures and progressive headache is the classic presentation of metastatic disease, and lung primary is the statistically most likely source.
Remember
Lung cancer is the commonest primary causing brain metastases overall, though melanoma has the highest per-case rate of CNS spread.
Question 10Neurosciences
A 73-year-old man with a prior anterior MI is starting amitriptyline for post-herpetic neuralgia. Which baseline cardiac investigation is advised before initiation?
- A12-lead ECG
- BExercise tolerance test
- CCoronary CT angiography
- DTransthoracic echocardiogram
- E24-hour ambulatory ECG
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A. 12-lead ECG
Amitriptyline has class Ia-like sodium-channel blocking activity that prolongs the QT and QRS intervals and can precipitate arrhythmia in patients with structural heart disease. A baseline 12-lead ECG is advised before prescribing a tricyclic in elderly patients or those with established cardiac disease to detect pre-existing conduction abnormalities (prolonged QTc, bundle branch block) that would contraindicate its use.
Remember
Tricyclic antidepressants prolong QT and QRS; a baseline ECG is advised before prescribing in the elderly or in anyone with ischaemic heart disease.
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