Musculoskeletal questions cover fractures, children's hips and the rheumatological emergencies. These ten take in the scaphoid, compartment syndrome, hip fracture surgery, slipped upper femoral epiphysis, developmental dysplasia of the hip, giant cell arteritis and systemic sclerosis.
Pick your answer, then open the explanation.
Question 1Clinical imaging
A 35-year-old man fell on an outstretched hand and has lateral wrist pain with tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox. X-ray appears normal but clinical suspicion of a fracture is high. He has difficulty gripping. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- ADe Quervain's tenosynovitis
- BScaphoid fracture
- CScapholunate ligament injury
- DDistal radius fracture
- EWrist sprain
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B. Scaphoid fracture
A fall on an outstretched hand with anatomical snuffbox tenderness and difficulty gripping is the classic presentation of a scaphoid fracture, which is frequently occult on initial plain radiographs. NICE guidance (NG38) advises considering MRI as first-line imaging after thorough clinical examination; in practice the wrist is immobilised empirically and, where MRI is unavailable, radiographs are repeated at 10 to 14 days, given the risk of avascular necrosis from the retrograde blood supply to the proximal pole.
Remember
Snuffbox tenderness after FOOSH with a normal X-ray warrants scaphoid immobilisation, with MRI considered as first-line further imaging to exclude occult fracture.
Question 2Clinical imaging
A 30-year-old man has sustained a tibial shaft fracture. The skin is intact. He develops increasing pain unresponsive to analgesia, with pain on passive ankle dorsiflexion. What complication should be suspected?
- AFat embolism syndrome
- BWound infection
- CDeep vein thrombosis
- DCommon peroneal nerve neurapraxia
- EAcute compartment syndrome
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E. Acute compartment syndrome
Acute compartment syndrome is the correct answer: pain disproportionate to injury and exacerbated by passive stretch of the compartment muscles (here, ankle dorsiflexion stretches the superficial and deep posterior compartments) are hallmark features. Closed tibial shaft fractures are the commonest cause in the UK, and the BOA standard requires immediate fasciotomy once diagnosed clinically or by compartment pressures (delta pressure <30 mmHg).
Remember
Pain out of proportion to injury plus pain on passive stretch after a tibial shaft fracture is compartment syndrome until proven otherwise; treat with emergency fasciotomy.
Question 3Musculoskeletal
An 88-year-old woman with a background of moderate dementia and osteoporosis falls at home. She normally mobilises indoors with a Zimmer frame and requires assistance with personal care. X-ray confirms a displaced intracapsular fracture of the left femoral neck. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
- AHemiarthroplasty
- BIntramedullary hip nail
- CTotal hip replacement
- DCannulated screw fixation
- EDynamic hip screw
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A. Hemiarthroplasty
Hemiarthroplasty is the correct intervention because replacement arthroplasty is recommended for displaced intracapsular femoral neck fractures, with hemiarthroplasty favoured over total hip replacement in patients who are not independently mobile outdoors or who are not expected to stay independent beyond 2 years. This patient's moderate dementia and indoor-only mobility with a Zimmer frame place her firmly in this category.
Remember
Displaced intracapsular hip fractures require arthroplasty; hemiarthroplasty is preferred unless the patient was independently mobile outdoors, free of any condition making it unsuitable, and expected to stay independent beyond 2 years, in which case total hip replacement is considered.
Question 4Child health
A 12-year-old girl has a stable slipped upper femoral epiphysis of the right hip confirmed on frog-leg lateral radiographs. She can walk with a limp. What is the most appropriate management?
- AIntra-articular corticosteroid injection
- BCorrective femoral osteotomy
- CClosed reduction under anaesthesia and hip spica
- DIn situ screw fixation of the epiphysis
- EAnalgesia and physiotherapy with review in 6 weeks
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D. In situ screw fixation of the epiphysis
A slipped epiphysis is fixed where it lies with a screw passed across the growth plate, which stops further slipping and lets the physis close. It is done promptly because a stable slip can become unstable with a minor injury, and the child is kept non-weight-bearing until surgery. Attempting to reduce the slip by manipulation is avoided because it tears the retinacular vessels supplying the femoral head and causes avascular necrosis, the most feared complication. Physiotherapy and observation allow the slip to progress, and osteotomy is a later reconstructive operation for residual deformity once the physis has fused.
Remember
A slipped upper femoral epiphysis is pinned in situ; manipulating it back into place risks avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Question 5Child health
A 7-week-old girl has a dislocatable left hip on dynamic ultrasound arranged because of a family history of hip dysplasia. What is the most appropriate management?
- AFemoral derotation osteotomy
- BAbduction splinting in a Pavlik harness
- CClosed reduction under anaesthesia and hip spica cast
- DOpen reduction of the hip
- EObservation with repeat ultrasound at 6 months
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B. Abduction splinting in a Pavlik harness
In an infant under about 6 months a dislocatable or dislocated hip is treated with a Pavlik harness, which holds the hips flexed and abducted so that the femoral head sits in the acetabulum and stimulates it to deepen. Worn continuously for several weeks with ultrasound checks, it succeeds in most cases, and the younger the baby the better. Closed reduction with a spica cast is used when the harness fails or when the child presents after about 6 months, and open reduction and osteotomies are for older children with established dislocation. Simply watching an unstable hip wastes the window in which the acetabulum can still remodel, and an untreated dislocation produces a limp, leg shortening and early arthritis.
Remember
A dislocatable or dislocated hip found in the first months of life is treated with a Pavlik harness; the older the child at diagnosis, the more invasive the treatment.
Question 6Clinical imaging
A 10-year-old boy presents with a four-day history of severe pain in his left tibia, fever, and refusal to weight-bear. Blood tests show raised CRP and white cell count. Which imaging investigation is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
- ATechnetium bone scan
- BUltrasound of the affected limb
- CMRI
- DPlain radiograph
- ECT scan
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C. MRI
MRI is the imaging modality of choice for suspected acute osteomyelitis in children (plain radiographs of the affected bone or joint are required first-line, with MRI the preferred second-line modality, ideally within 48 hours) because it detects bone marrow oedema, periosteal reaction, and soft tissue abscesses within 1–2 days of infection onset, well before plain radiographs show changes. It also provides anatomical detail to guide surgical drainage if needed and avoids ionising radiation. UK paediatric orthopaedic practice (BSCOS) supports MRI as the investigation of choice once acute osteomyelitis is clinically suspected.
Remember
MRI is the imaging investigation of choice for suspected acute osteomyelitis in children; plain radiograph changes take 10–14 days to appear.
Question 7Cancer
A 16-year-old boy presents with a 6-week history of progressive pain and swelling of the mid-shaft of his left femur, worse at night. He has felt feverish and lost 3 kg. Radiographs show a permeative lytic lesion in the diaphysis with a multilayered 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Which diagnosis is most likely?
- AEwing sarcoma
- BOsteoid osteoma
- COsteosarcoma
- DLangerhans cell histiocytosis
- EOsteomyelitis
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A. Ewing sarcoma
Ewing sarcoma classically affects the diaphysis of long bones in adolescents and produces a permeative lytic lesion with a lamellated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction, often accompanied by systemic features (fever, weight loss, raised inflammatory markers) that mimic infection. Urgent referral is recommended for bone pain with a permeative lesion in a child or young adult; diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy showing small round blue cells with the t(11;22) EWSR1–FLI1 fusion.
Remember
A diaphyseal long-bone lesion with onion-skin periosteal reaction and systemic symptoms in an adolescent should raise suspicion of Ewing sarcoma.
Question 8Musculoskeletal
A 70-year-old woman has sudden visual loss and jaw claudication. ESR 90 mm/h. Which vasculitis fits?
- ATakayasu arteritis
- BKawasaki disease
- CANCA-associated vasculitis (granulomatosis with polyangiitis)
- DGiant cell arteritis
- EPolyarteritis nodosa
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D. Giant cell arteritis
Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a large/medium-vessel granulomatous vasculitis affecting branches of the external carotid and ophthalmic arteries, classically presenting in patients over 50 with new headache, jaw claudication, sudden visual loss and ESR typically >50 mm/h. Immediate high-dose prednisolone (40-60 mg daily, or IV methylprednisolone if visual symptoms) is given before confirmatory temporal artery biopsy to prevent permanent blindness.
Remember
In any patient over 50 with suspected GCA, start high-dose steroids immediately on clinical suspicion, without waiting for biopsy.
Question 9Musculoskeletal
A 55-year-old woman has a 4-year history of Raynaud phenomenon, dysphagia for solids, and skin tightening confined to the fingers, forearms and face. She has nailfold telangiectasia and small subcutaneous calcium deposits over the fingertips. ANA is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- ADermatomyositis
- BSystemic lupus erythematosus
- CLimited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
- DDiffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
- EMixed connective tissue disease
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C. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
The combination of long-standing Raynaud phenomenon, sclerodactyly limited to distal to the elbows and the face, telangiectasia, calcinosis and oesophageal dysmotility is the classic CREST phenotype of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis. In limited disease skin thickening spares the trunk and proximal limbs, and pulmonary hypertension is the main long-term threat, in contrast to the early diffuse skin and renal/lung involvement of diffuse systemic sclerosis.
Remember
Anti-centromere antibodies are the hallmark serological marker of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (CREST), whereas anti-Scl-70 points to diffuse disease.
Question 10Renal and urology
A 52-year-old woman with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis diagnosed 18 months ago presents with headache. Blood pressure is 205/120 mmHg and creatinine has risen from 70 to 240 micromol/L in a week. Which drug should be started first?
- AIntravenous sodium nitroprusside
- BLosartan
- CAmlodipine
- DCaptopril
- EIntravenous labetalol
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D. Captopril
Accelerated hypertension with a rapidly rising creatinine in early diffuse systemic sclerosis is a renal crisis, driven by intense renin release from ischaemic kidneys. Treatment is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor started immediately and titrated every few hours; short-acting captopril is preferred because it can be adjusted quickly. The ACE inhibitor is continued even if creatinine rises further, because it is the only therapy shown to restore renal function. Angiotensin receptor blockers do not achieve the same outcomes and other antihypertensives are added only once the ACE inhibitor is at full dose.
Remember
Scleroderma renal crisis is treated with an immediately started and rapidly titrated ACE inhibitor such as captopril, continued even if creatinine rises.
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