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Free UKMLA infection questions with explanations

Infection questions turn on the right organism, the right test and the right antibiotic. These ten cover typhoid from South Asia, a tetanus-prone wound, sepsis, penicillin allergy, lung and liver abscesses and hepatitis B.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Infection

A 34-year-old man is admitted with typhoid fever, confirmed on blood culture, 10 days after returning from India; sensitivities are awaited. He is drowsy with a temperature of 40°C. Which antibiotic is most appropriate to start?

  1. AIntravenous co-amoxiclav
  2. BIntravenous chloramphenicol
  3. CIntravenous gentamicin
  4. DIntravenous ciprofloxacin
  5. EIntravenous ceftriaxone
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E. Intravenous ceftriaxone

Reduced fluoroquinolone susceptibility is now so common in Salmonella Typhi from South Asia that ciprofloxacin cannot be used empirically for travellers from that region. For severe or complicated typhoid, such as drowsiness, very high fever or inability to take oral therapy, intravenous ceftriaxone is the empirical choice, with oral azithromycin used for uncomplicated disease. Extensively drug-resistant strains acquired in Pakistan are also ceftriaxone-resistant and need a carbapenem, so travel history and culture sensitivities direct the final choice. Gentamicin is active in vitro but fails clinically because the organism lives inside macrophages. The historic first-line agents (amoxicillin, co-trimoxazole, chloramphenicol) were abandoned because of multidrug resistance.

Remember

Severe typhoid acquired in South Asia is treated empirically with intravenous ceftriaxone; ciprofloxacin is unreliable because of widespread resistance, and Pakistani XDR strains need a carbapenem.

Question 2Infection

A 45-year-old man who grew up abroad with no record of any childhood vaccinations attends the emergency department two hours after a deep puncture wound to the sole from a garden fork contaminated with manure. What is the most appropriate management?

  1. ATetanus immunoglobulin and wound debridement
  2. BWound debridement and review of vaccination records in one week
  3. CTetanus immunoglobulin, a dose of tetanus-containing vaccine and wound debridement
  4. DA dose of tetanus-containing vaccine and wound debridement
  5. EOral metronidazole and wound debridement
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C. Tetanus immunoglobulin, a dose of tetanus-containing vaccine and wound debridement

A deep puncture wound contaminated with soil or manure is a high-risk tetanus-prone wound, and a patient with no history of immunisation has no protective antibody. He needs immediate passive protection with human tetanus immunoglobulin, which neutralises toxin while the wound is cleaned and devitalised tissue removed, together with active immunisation starting with a dose of tetanus-containing vaccine now and completion of the primary course afterwards. Antibiotics such as metronidazole are also given for a tetanus-prone wound as clinical severity indicates, but they never replace immunoglobulin or vaccine. Vaccine on its own takes weeks to generate protective antibody, too late for a wound already inoculated with spores.

Remember

An unimmunised patient with a high-risk tetanus-prone wound needs tetanus immunoglobulin, a tetanus-containing vaccine and wound debridement, then completion of the primary course.

Question 3Acute and emergency

A 62-year-old man is admitted with suspected urosepsis. He is febrile, tachycardic at 118 bpm, and hypotensive at 92/54 mmHg despite two 250 mL crystalloid boluses. The team is completing the Sepsis Six. Which blood test best quantifies the degree of tissue hypoperfusion to guide further resuscitation?

  1. AHigh-sensitivity troponin
  2. BSerum lactate
  3. CSerum amylase
  4. DD-dimer
  5. EVenous base excess
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B. Serum lactate

Serum lactate is the perfusion biomarker within the Sepsis Six (UK Sepsis Trust) and Surviving Sepsis Campaign bundles because inadequate oxygen delivery drives anaerobic glycolysis and lactate production. A level above 2 mmol/L signals significant hypoperfusion and above 4 mmol/L carries markedly increased mortality; a lactate over 2 mmol/L in medium-risk sepsis means managing as high risk, with 250 mL fluid boluses and senior review.

Remember

Serum lactate above 2 mmol/L signals tissue hypoperfusion in sepsis; above 4 mmol/L indicates high mortality risk.

Question 4Infection

A 45-year-old woman with a documented IgE-mediated anaphylactic reaction to penicillin requires IV antibiotics for severe gram-negative sepsis with suspected Pseudomonas. The treating team needs a beta-lactam with the lowest cross-reactivity rate with penicillin. Which agent fits?

  1. ACeftazidime
  2. BPiperacillin-tazobactam
  3. CAztreonam
  4. DCefuroxime
  5. EMeropenem
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C. Aztreonam

Aztreonam is the only clinically used monobactam, with a single beta-lactam ring and no fused second ring. Its structure differs enough from penicillins that cross-reactivity in penicillin-allergic patients is essentially zero (except in patients specifically allergic to ceftazidime, which shares aztreonam's R1 side chain). It covers gram-negative aerobes including Pseudomonas.

Takeaway: Aztreonam is structurally a monobactam with negligible penicillin cross-reactivity; useful for gram-negative cover in penicillin-allergic patients.

Remember

Aztreonam (monobactam) has near-zero penicillin cross-reactivity; gram-negative cover for penicillin-allergic patients.

Question 5Respiratory

A 52-year-old man with alcohol dependence and poor dentition has had 3 weeks of fever and foul-smelling sputum. Chest X-ray shows a 5 cm thick-walled cavity with an air-fluid level in the right lower lobe. He is haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management?

  1. APercutaneous catheter drainage of the cavity
  2. BIntercostal chest drain insertion
  3. CProlonged antibiotics with anaerobic cover and postural drainage
  4. DBronchoscopic drainage of the cavity
  5. ELobectomy
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C. Prolonged antibiotics with anaerobic cover and postural drainage

An aspiration lung abscess is a polymicrobial, predominantly anaerobic infection, and the great majority resolve with a prolonged course of antibiotics that cover oral anaerobes, typically 4 to 6 weeks, together with physiotherapy and postural drainage because the abscess drains naturally through the bronchial tree. A chest drain must not be inserted into a lung abscess: unlike an empyema, the cavity lies within lung parenchyma and drainage risks a bronchopleural fistula and empyema. Percutaneous or surgical drainage is reserved for abscesses that fail medical treatment, and lobectomy for uncontrolled sepsis, massive haemoptysis or suspected malignancy.

Remember

A lung abscess is treated with 4 to 6 weeks of antibiotics covering anaerobes plus postural drainage; a chest drain is contraindicated because the cavity is intrapulmonary.

Question 6Gastrointestinal including liver

A 58-year-old woman with fever and right upper quadrant pain has a single 7 cm pyogenic abscess in the right lobe of the liver on CT. Blood cultures have been taken and she is haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management?

  1. AOpen surgical drainage
  2. BLaparoscopic deroofing of the abscess
  3. CIntravenous antibiotics with interval imaging
  4. DPercutaneous drainage with intravenous antibiotics
  5. EEndoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
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D. Percutaneous drainage with intravenous antibiotics

Pyogenic liver abscesses are treated with broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics covering enteric Gram-negatives, streptococci and anaerobes, combined with image-guided percutaneous drainage for any collection large enough to drain, usually taken as more than about 3 cm. Antibiotics with observation can be reasonable for small abscesses under about 3 cm, but a 7 cm collection will not sterilise reliably without drainage and risks rupture. Surgical drainage is reserved for multiloculated or ruptured abscesses, or failure of percutaneous drainage. Antibiotics are continued for several weeks with imaging to confirm resolution.

Remember

A large pyogenic liver abscess is treated with image-guided percutaneous drainage plus prolonged intravenous antibiotics; surgery is for failure or rupture.

Question 7General practice and primary healthcare

A 30-year-old man with advanced HIV (CD4 count 40 cells/mm³) presents with a 4-day history of a painful vesicular rash that began on the left chest wall but has now spread over the trunk, face and limbs in a non-dermatomal distribution. He is febrile with deranged liver enzymes and confusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AMpox (monkeypox) infection
  2. BDisseminated herpes simplex infection
  3. CPrimary varicella (chickenpox)
  4. DDisseminated herpes zoster
  5. EEczema herpeticum
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D. Disseminated herpes zoster

Disseminated herpes zoster is the likely diagnosis: in profoundly immunosuppressed patients (CD4 <50), reactivated VZV escapes dermatomal confinement and seeds viscera, producing hepatitis, pneumonitis and encephalitis alongside widespread vesicles. The history of a dermatomal (left chest wall) onset that subsequently disseminated is the key discriminator, and UK guidance (BHIVA opportunistic infection guidelines) mandates IV aciclovir with isolation.

Remember

Disseminated zoster is defined as >20 vesicles outside the primary and adjacent dermatomes or involvement of two or more non-contiguous dermatomes, almost exclusively seen in the immunocompromised.

Question 8Child health

A patient with recurrent lower limb cellulitis (four episodes in the past year) has lymphoedema and chronic venous disease already managed with compression garments and daily skin care. Which additional measure can reduce the frequency of cellulitis recurrence?

  1. ALifelong high-dose flucloxacillin
  2. BProphylactic low-dose penicillin V
  3. CMonthly IV antibiotic infusions
  4. DRegular oral furosemide to reduce limb swelling
  5. ETopical antibiotics applied daily
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B. Prophylactic low-dose penicillin V

Prophylactic low-dose penicillin V (typically 250 mg twice daily) is the evidence-based intervention to reduce recurrence in patients with two or more cellulitis episodes per year, especially where lymphoedema or chronic venous disease predispose to reinfection. The PATCH I trial demonstrated a significant reduction in recurrence during prophylaxis (PATCH II, in patients after a single episode, did not reach statistical significance), and antibiotic prophylaxis should be considered in this group for at least 12 months alongside oedema management and skin care.

Remember

In patients with two or more cellulitis episodes per year, prophylactic penicillin V 250 mg BD reduces recurrence (PATCH trials).

Question 9Infection

A hepatologist explains that hepatitis B virus causes liver damage primarily through the host immune response rather than direct viral cytopathicity. Which immune cell is principally responsible for hepatocyte destruction in chronic hepatitis B?

  1. ACytotoxic T lymphocytes
  2. BCD4+ helper T lymphocytes
  3. CB lymphocytes
  4. DNatural killer cells
  5. ENeutrophils
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A. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Hepatocyte injury in chronic hepatitis B is mediated principally by HBV-specific CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes, which recognise viral peptides presented on MHC class I of infected hepatocytes and induce apoptosis via perforin/granzyme and Fas-FasL pathways. HBV itself is non-cytopathic, which is why immunosuppressed patients can harbour high viral loads with minimal hepatitis, while immune reconstitution precipitates flares.

Remember

HBV is non-cytopathic; chronic hepatitis B liver damage is driven by CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes targeting infected hepatocytes.

Question 10Infection

A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with influenza in primary care and managed at home with supportive treatment. He lives alone and asks when he should contact medical services again. Which advice constitutes appropriate safety-netting?

  1. AReturn for review if symptoms persist beyond 5 days
  2. BReturn only after symptoms have fully resolved
  3. CReturn for review if fever exceeds 37.5°C at any point
  4. DReturn for review if cough produces clear sputum
  5. ESeek urgent review if breathlessness, chest pain, or new confusion develop
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E. Seek urgent review if breathlessness, chest pain, or new confusion develop

Influenza safety-netting should highlight features suggesting serious complications such as secondary bacterial pneumonia, myocarditis, or encephalitis, namely worsening breathlessness, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, and altered mental state. These warrant urgent reassessment because they indicate progression beyond uncomplicated viral illness. Uncomplicated influenza typically resolves over 7–10 days with supportive care alone.

Remember

Influenza red flags warranting urgent review include worsening breathlessness, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, confusion or drowsiness, and signs of dehydration or sepsis.

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