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Free UKMLA haematology questions with explanations

Haematology questions ask you to read the blood count, the clotting screen and the clinical picture together. These ten cover tumour lysis syndrome, DIC, polycythaemia, MALT lymphoma, anticoagulation and its reversal, and VTE in pregnancy.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Cancer

A 28-year-old man with Burkitt lymphoma is admitted for induction chemotherapy. Baseline urate is 0.6 mmol/L. Twelve hours after first dose he develops AKI, potassium 6.8 mmol/L, phosphate 3.2 mmol/L, and calcium 1.6 mmol/L. What is the most likely complication?

  1. ATumour lysis syndrome
  2. BRasburicase-induced methaemoglobinaemia
  3. CMethotrexate nephrotoxicity
  4. DCytokine release syndrome
  5. ENeutropenic sepsis
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A. Tumour lysis syndrome

Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is the correct answer: rapid lysis of highly proliferative Burkitt cells releases intracellular potassium, phosphate and nucleic acids (metabolised to urate), with hypocalcaemia from calcium phosphate precipitation, causing AKI. The biochemical pattern (hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, hyperuricaemia, hypocalcaemia) appearing here 12 hours after chemotherapy fulfils the Cairo-Bishop laboratory criteria, which run from 3 days before to 7 days after treatment.

Remember

Burkitt lymphoma is the highest-risk malignancy for TLS; give prophylactic IV fluids and rasburicase before induction chemotherapy.

Question 2Clinical haematology

A 58-year-old man on intensive care with severe pneumonia has platelets 60 × 10⁹/L, prolonged PT and APTT, fibrinogen 1.2 g/L and a markedly raised D-dimer. He is not bleeding and no procedures are planned. What is the most important step in managing his coagulopathy?

  1. AIntravenous vitamin K
  2. BTreat the pneumonia with antibiotics and supportive care
  3. CTranexamic acid to reduce fibrinolysis
  4. DFresh frozen plasma to correct the clotting times
  5. EPlatelet transfusion
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B. Treat the pneumonia with antibiotics and supportive care

The coagulopathy of DIC is driven by the underlying condition, and the treatment that reverses it is treating that cause: here, effective antibiotics and organ support for the pneumonia. In a patient who is not bleeding and needs no procedure, abnormal numbers on their own are not an indication for blood products; transfusing plasma or platelets to normalise results adds volume, exposure and cost without evidence of benefit, and is reserved for patients who are bleeding or facing surgery. Tranexamic acid is generally avoided in DIC because fibrinolysis is protective in a microthrombotic process and inhibiting it can worsen organ ischaemia. Vitamin K does not address consumption. Non-bleeding critically ill patients still need standard thromboprophylaxis unless contraindicated.

Remember

In DIC the coagulopathy follows the cause: treat the underlying condition, and give blood products to patients who are bleeding or need a procedure, not to correct numbers.

Question 3Clinical haematology

A 68-year-old man with polycythaemia vera managed by venesection and low-dose aspirin had a deep vein thrombosis last year. His haematologist recommends cytoreductive therapy. Which drug is most appropriate first-line?

  1. AImatinib
  2. BAnagrelide
  3. CHydroxycarbamide
  4. DRuxolitinib
  5. EBusulfan
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C. Hydroxycarbamide

Older age or a previous thrombosis each defines high-risk polycythaemia vera, and this man has both. Venesection controls the haematocrit but not the thrombotic contribution of raised white cells and platelets, so cytoreduction is added. Hydroxycarbamide is the first-line agent: an oral ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor that lowers all three cell lines, is well tolerated and reduces thrombotic events. Interferon alfa is the alternative preferred in younger patients and in pregnancy. Ruxolitinib, a JAK inhibitor, is kept for disease that is resistant to or intolerant of hydroxycarbamide.

Remember

In high-risk polycythaemia vera (older age or previous thrombosis) hydroxycarbamide is the first-line cytoreductive drug.

Question 4Cancer

A 61-year-old man with a newly diagnosed 8 cm left renal mass has a haemoglobin of 192 g/L and a haematocrit of 0.57. Which mechanism best explains these results?

  1. AHypoxia-driven erythropoietin release
  2. BTumour secretion of parathyroid hormone-related peptide
  3. CHaemoconcentration from dehydration
  4. DAcquired JAK2 V617F mutation
  5. EEctopic erythropoietin secretion by the tumour
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E. Ectopic erythropoietin secretion by the tumour

Renal cell carcinoma arises from proximal tubular cells and can secrete erythropoietin autonomously, so a minority of patients present with a true secondary polycythaemia, which resolves after nephrectomy. This is one of a family of paraneoplastic effects of renal cancer that also includes hypercalcaemia from parathyroid hormone-related peptide, hypertension from renin and non-metastatic hepatic dysfunction (Stauffer syndrome). The nearest alternative is polycythaemia vera driven by a JAK2 mutation, but that is a primary marrow disorder with a suppressed erythropoietin level and often a raised platelet and white cell count, whereas the tumour-driven form has a raised erythropoietin and a normal marrow. Measuring erythropoietin separates the two.

Remember

Renal cell carcinoma can secrete erythropoietin, causing a secondary polycythaemia with a raised erythropoietin level that resolves after nephrectomy.

Question 5Cancer

A 58-year-old man has a 10-year history of dyspepsia and a long-standing, poorly treated Helicobacter pylori infection. Endoscopic biopsies from the gastric antrum show a dense small B-cell infiltrate that invades and disrupts the glandular epithelium, forming lymphoepithelial lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ADiffuse large B-cell lymphoma
  2. BMantle cell lymphoma
  3. CExtranodal marginal zone lymphoma
  4. DChronic lymphocytic leukaemia
  5. EFollicular lymphoma
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C. Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma

Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (gastric MALT lymphoma) arises from chronic antigenic stimulation, most classically by H. pylori, and is recognised histologically by a small B-cell infiltrate forming characteristic lymphoepithelial lesions, with clonality confirming the diagnosis. Immunophenotype is typically CD20+, CD5-, CD10-, cyclin D1- (distinguishing it from mantle cell, follicular and CLL). H. pylori eradication is recommended as first-line therapy for localised disease, which induces remission in most cases.

Remember

Lymphoepithelial lesions with a CD20+/CD5-/CD10-/cyclin D1- small B-cell infiltrate define MALT lymphoma, which often regresses with H. pylori eradication alone.

Question 6Cancer

A 27-year-old man who has never smoked presents with three weeks of facial swelling, distended neck veins and breathlessness lying flat. He has drenching night sweats and has lost 6 kg. Chest radiograph shows a large anterior mediastinal mass. What is the most likely underlying cause?

  1. ASmall cell lung cancer
  2. BLymphoma
  3. CFibrosing mediastinitis
  4. DThymoma
  5. ECatheter-associated venous thrombosis
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B. Lymphoma

Lung cancer accounts for most cases of superior vena cava obstruction overall, but in a young never-smoker with B symptoms and an anterior mediastinal mass the most likely cause is lymphoma, particularly Hodgkin lymphoma or primary mediastinal B cell lymphoma. This distinction matters for management: lymphoma is highly chemosensitive, so tissue diagnosis before steroids or radiotherapy is the priority rather than urgent stenting. Small cell lung cancer is the tumour most likely to cause it per case, although non-small cell lung cancer accounts for more cases overall, and both occur in older heavy smokers.

Remember

Superior vena cava obstruction in a young never-smoker with B symptoms and an anterior mediastinal mass is most likely lymphoma.

Question 7Clinical haematology

A 40-year-old with hereditary spherocytosis has chronic haemolytic anaemia requiring intermittent transfusions. Which intervention most effectively reduces ongoing haemolysis?

  1. AFolic acid supplementation
  2. BCorticosteroid therapy
  3. CErythropoietin injections
  4. DSplenectomy
  5. EIron supplementation
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D. Splenectomy

Hereditary spherocytosis results from red cell membrane protein defects (commonly ankyrin or spectrin) producing rigid spherocytes that are preferentially sequestered and destroyed in the splenic cords. Splenectomy removes the principal site of haemolysis and substantially reduces red cell destruction, transfusion need, and symptomatic anaemia, though it is typically deferred until after age 5 to 6 to mitigate post-splenectomy sepsis risk, with pre-operative pneumococcal and meningococcal (ACWY and B) vaccination per UK guidance.

Remember

In hereditary spherocytosis, splenectomy is the definitive intervention that reduces haemolysis by removing the site of spherocyte destruction.

Question 8Cancer

A 40-year-old woman at 28 weeks' gestation presents with a swollen, tender right calf. Doppler ultrasound confirms an acute proximal deep vein thrombosis. She has no renal impairment and weighs 75 kg. Which anticoagulant regimen is the most appropriate initial treatment?

  1. ASubcutaneous fondaparinux at treatment dose
  2. BIntravenous unfractionated heparin infusion
  3. CSubcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin at prophylactic dose
  4. DSubcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin at treatment dose
  5. EOral apixaban at treatment dose
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D. Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin at treatment dose

Treatment-dose low-molecular-weight heparin (e.g. enoxaparin 1 mg/kg twice daily or dalteparin weight-adjusted) is first-line for acute VTE in pregnancy because LMWH does not cross the placenta, has predictable pharmacokinetics, and a lower risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and osteoporosis than unfractionated heparin. It should be continued throughout pregnancy and for at least 6 weeks postpartum, with a minimum total duration of 3 months.

Remember

Acute VTE in pregnancy is treated with weight-adjusted treatment-dose LMWH continued antenatally and for at least 6 weeks postpartum (minimum 3 months total).

Question 9Cancer

A 74-year-old man with atrial fibrillation attends the anticoagulation clinic six weeks after starting a vitamin K antagonist for stroke prevention. He has been taking the medication daily and his GP has requested routine monitoring before adjusting the dose. Which blood test is most appropriate to guide ongoing dose titration?

  1. AActivated partial thromboplastin time
  2. BThrombin time
  3. CFibrinogen level
  4. DInternational normalised ratio
  5. EAnti-factor Xa activity
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D. International normalised ratio

Vitamin K antagonists such as warfarin inhibit hepatic synthesis of factors II, VII, IX and X, prolonging the extrinsic pathway; this is measured by the prothrombin time and standardised as the INR to allow comparability between laboratories. The INR target is 2.0–3.0 for atrial fibrillation and venous thromboembolism, and 3.0 to 3.5 for mechanical mitral valves depending on prosthesis thrombogenicity (BSH caps the target at 3.5).

Remember

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using the INR, derived from the prothrombin time, with a target of 2.0–3.0 in atrial fibrillation and VTE.

Question 10Cancer

A 64-year-old man on a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion develops torrential bleeding from a surgical drain. The team wants to neutralise his anticoagulation immediately. Which agent reverses the effect of this drug?

  1. AAndexanet alfa
  2. BIdarucizumab
  3. CVitamin K
  4. DProtamine sulfate
  5. EProthrombin complex concentrate
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D. Protamine sulfate

Protamine sulfate is a positively charged protein that binds and neutralises the negatively charged heparin molecule, rapidly reversing unfractionated heparin (and partially reversing low-molecular-weight heparin). It is given by slow intravenous injection, dosed against the amount of heparin given. The short half-life and reversibility of unfractionated heparin make it the preferred parenteral anticoagulant when rapid on-off control is needed.

Remember

Protamine sulfate reverses unfractionated heparin (and partially LMWH); it has no role for warfarin or DOAC reversal.

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