General practice questions test the consultation: what to offer, what to prescribe and when to refer. These ten cover Lyme disease, rosacea, pertussis contacts, the HPV vaccine, gout, vertigo, fit notes and support after a sudden infant death.
Pick your answer, then open the explanation.
Question 1General practice and primary healthcare
A 34-year-old hiker presents to her GP two weeks after a walking holiday in the New Forest. She describes an expanding red rash on her thigh with central clearing, accompanied by fatigue, myalgia and a mild headache. Which organism is most likely responsible for her illness?
- ABabesia microti
- BTreponema pallidum
- CBorrelia burgdorferi
- DRickettsia conorii
- EAnaplasma phagocytophilum
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C. Borrelia burgdorferi
An expanding annular rash with central clearing (erythema migrans) accompanied by flu-like symptoms after woodland exposure in a UK endemic area such as the New Forest is characteristic of early localised Lyme disease, caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and transmitted by Ixodes ricinus ticks. Lyme disease is diagnosed clinically when erythema migrans is present, without waiting for serology, and oral doxycycline is started.
Remember
Erythema migrans alone is sufficient to diagnose Lyme disease clinically; treat with doxycycline without serological confirmation.
Question 2Dermatology
A 39-year-old man with rosacea has more than 30 inflammatory papules and pustules across the cheeks, nose and chin on a background of erythema. He takes no regular medicines and has no allergies. Which oral treatment is most appropriate?
- APrednisolone
- BIsotretinoin
- CErythromycin
- DFlucloxacillin
- EDoxycycline 40 mg modified-release once daily
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E. Doxycycline 40 mg modified-release once daily
Moderate to severe papulopustular rosacea is treated with an oral tetracycline, and modified-release doxycycline 40 mg once daily is the licensed option in the UK: at this dose it works through its anti-inflammatory rather than antibacterial effect, which is why it does not drive resistance and is used in courses of 8 to 12 weeks, usually alongside a topical agent such as ivermectin. Oral isotretinoin is a specialist option for disease that fails tetracyclines. Erythromycin is used when a tetracycline is contraindicated, for example in pregnancy, but is less effective and less well tolerated. Systemic steroids and anti-staphylococcal penicillins have no place, and topical steroids make rosacea worse.
Remember
Moderate to severe papulopustular rosacea is treated with modified-release doxycycline 40 mg once daily, an anti-inflammatory dose that does not drive resistance.
Question 3Dermatology
A 44-year-old woman has 2 years of facial flushing brought on by alcohol and hot drinks, with persistent redness of the cheeks and nose. Examination shows telangiectatic erythema extending across the nasolabial folds, with scattered papules and pustules on the cheeks and chin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- ASeborrhoeic dermatitis
- BSystemic lupus erythematosus
- CPapulopustular rosacea
- DAcne vulgaris
- EPerioral dermatitis
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C. Papulopustular rosacea
Flushing triggered by alcohol and heat, persistent centrofacial erythema with telangiectasiae, and inflammatory papules and pustules in a middle-aged woman are the features of papulopustular rosacea. The two discriminators against acne vulgaris, the nearest alternative, are the flushing history with telangiectasiae and the absence of comedones, which are the defining lesion of acne and never occur in rosacea; acne also typically starts in adolescence. The malar rash of lupus is fixed, photosensitive and characteristically spares the nasolabial folds, whereas rosacea involves them, and lupus does not produce pustules. Seborrhoeic dermatitis gives greasy yellow scale in the nasolabial folds and eyebrows without papules or pustules.
Remember
Rosacea is centrofacial flushing and telangiectatic erythema, often with papules and pustules but never comedones; unlike the lupus malar rash it involves the nasolabial folds.
Question 4General practice and primary healthcare
A 4-month-old boy has been exposed to an adult household member with confirmed whooping cough 5 days ago. He has received one dose of the pertussis-containing primary vaccine and is currently asymptomatic. Which pharmacological intervention is most appropriate as post-exposure prophylaxis?
- AOral amoxicillin
- BOral doxycycline
- COral azithromycin
- DOral co-trimoxazole
- EOral erythromycin
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C. Oral azithromycin
A partially vaccinated infant under 1 year is a priority contact for pertussis post-exposure prophylaxis under UKHSA guidance. Oral azithromycin is the macrolide of choice in infants because of its short 3-day once-daily course and better gastrointestinal tolerability than erythromycin, which also raises the risk of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis two- to threefold in infancy, most of all in the first 14 days of life.
Remember
Infants under 1 year exposed to pertussis within 21 days should receive azithromycin prophylaxis, when partially immunised, if the index case's symptom onset was within 21 days (UKHSA).
Question 5Child health
A 12-year-old girl is about to enter Year 8 and her parents ask about the routine school vaccination programme for cervical cancer prevention. They want to know which vaccine the NHS currently uses and how it is given. Which schedule does the UK school programme follow?
- ASingle dose of bivalent vaccine
- BTwo doses of quadrivalent vaccine
- CThree doses of nonavalent vaccine
- DTwo doses of nonavalent vaccine
- ESingle dose of nonavalent vaccine
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E. Single dose of nonavalent vaccine
Since 2023 the UK uses the nonavalent HPV vaccine (Gardasil 9) given as a single dose in Year 8 to all eligible adolescents, irrespective of sex (gender-neutral programme since 2019). The previous two-dose schedule was simplified after immunogenicity and population-effectiveness data supported equivalent protection from one dose under age 25. Immunocompromised individuals still receive three doses. Takeaway: routine UK HPV vaccination is a single nonavalent dose at age 12-13 for both girls and boys.
Remember
UK routine HPV vaccination: one dose of nonavalent Gardasil 9 in Year 8, both sexes.
Question 6General practice and primary healthcare
A 48-year-old man presents with his first episode of gout. He takes a daily medication for hypertension. His GP reviews his drug chart as a possible contributing factor. Which antihypertensive is most likely to have precipitated his gout?
- AAtenolol
- BRamipril
- CAmlodipine
- DBendroflumethiazide
- ELosartan
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D. Bendroflumethiazide
Thiazide diuretics such as bendroflumethiazide reduce renal urate excretion by competing with uric acid for organic anion transporters in the proximal tubule, raising serum urate and precipitating gout. Thiazide and loop diuretics are key drug-related precipitants to review, and an ARB such as losartan is often substituted because it is mildly uricosuric. Takeaway: Thiazide (and thiazide-like) diuretics are the classic antihypertensive precipitants of gout; ACE inhibitors, ARBs, beta-blockers and calcium-channel blockers are not.
Remember
Thiazide and loop diuretics raise serum urate by reducing renal excretion and are common precipitants of gout.
Question 7Ear, nose and throat
A 40-year-old man presents with 24 hours of continuous vertigo and vomiting after a viral illness, with normal hearing and no focal neurology. Vestibular neuritis is diagnosed. Which drug is most appropriate for short-term symptom relief?
- APrednisolone
- BBetahistine
- CAciclovir
- DAmitriptyline
- EProchlorperazine
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E. Prochlorperazine
The acute phase of vestibular neuritis is treated symptomatically with a vestibular sedative, and prochlorperazine (buccal or intramuscular if vomiting prevents oral use) is the usual choice, with an antihistamine such as cinnarizine or cyclizine as an alternative. These drugs damp the vestibular imbalance and the nausea for the few days of severe symptoms. They must then be stopped, because continued vestibular suppression delays the central compensation on which recovery depends, and the patient should be encouraged to mobilise. Corticosteroids and antivirals are not routinely recommended: steroids may speed recovery of caloric responses but do not improve symptoms or long-term outcome, and antivirals have no demonstrated benefit.
Remember
Acute vestibular neuritis is treated with a short course of a vestibular sedative such as prochlorperazine, stopped after a few days so that central compensation is not delayed.
Question 8Perioperative medicine and anaesthesia
A 34-year-old warehouse worker is being discharged two days after a laparoscopic appendicectomy. She asks for a sick note, as she expects to be unable to work for three weeks. What is the most appropriate action for the discharging FY1?
- AProvide a discharge letter, as hospital doctors cannot issue fit notes
- BAdvise her to self-certify for seven days and then see her GP for a fit note
- CAdvise her that a fit note can only be issued after seven days of absence
- DRefer her to occupational health for a fitness-for-work assessment
- EIssue a fit note covering the expected period of recovery
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E. Issue a fit note covering the expected period of recovery
Any registered doctor can issue a fit note (as can nurses, pharmacists, physiotherapists and occupational therapists since 2022), and the expectation is that the clinician responsible for the patient's care at the time issues it. A hospital doctor discharging a patient who will be off work for more than seven days should therefore provide a fit note covering the anticipated recovery rather than sending the patient to a GP who did not treat them. The first seven days of absence can be self-certified, but that does not prevent a fit note being issued at discharge for the whole expected period. The fit note is advice to the patient and employer about fitness for work; no note is ever required to return to work.
Remember
The clinician responsible for care issues the fit note: a hospital doctor should give a discharged patient a fit note for the expected recovery period rather than sending them to the GP.
Question 9Child health
A couple whose first child died of sudden infant death syndrome at 3 months attend the booking visit of a new pregnancy and ask what extra support will be available once the baby is born. What is the most appropriate offer?
- AGenetic testing of the parents for inherited cardiac channelopathies
- BOvernight oxygen saturation monitoring on the postnatal ward before discharge
- CReferral to children's social care for a pre-birth safeguarding assessment
- DEnrolment in the Care of Next Infant programme with health visitor support
- EProvision of a home apnoea monitor with routine health visitor follow-up
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D. Enrolment in the Care of Next Infant programme with health visitor support
Families who have lost a baby to sudden infant death are at higher risk of anxiety and of a further loss, and in the UK they can be enrolled before birth in the Care of Next Infant (CONI) programme, run with the Lullaby Trust through local health visiting and paediatric services. It offers structured support from the health visitor with regular contact, weight monitoring, a symptom diary, a room thermometer and safer-sleep advice, and, where the family wishes, an apnoea monitor for reassurance. Monitors have not been shown to prevent sudden infant death, so the monitor is offered as part of the package rather than as the intervention itself. The advice that actually reduces risk is the same for every baby: back to sleep, in a clear cot in the parents' room for the first six months, a smoke-free home, no sofa or armchair sleeping, and not overheating. A previous sudden infant death that was fully investigated and unexplained is not in itself a safeguarding concern.
Remember
After a previous sudden infant death, offer the family the Care of Next Infant programme, which provides structured health visitor support with safer-sleep advice, monitoring and an optional apnoea alarm.
Question 10Dermatology
A 32-year-old man presents with well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scale over his elbows, knees, and scalp. A punch biopsy is taken for histological examination. Which microscopic finding is most characteristic of this condition?
- AInterface dermatitis
- BSpongiosis
- CAcantholysis
- DHypergranulosis with orthokeratosis
- EAcanthosis with parakeratosis
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E. Acanthosis with parakeratosis
The clinical description of well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scale on extensor surfaces and scalp is classic for psoriasis, which histologically shows acanthosis (thickening of the stratum spinosum with elongated rete ridges) and parakeratosis (retention of nuclei within the stratum corneum). Additional features include Munro microabscesses (neutrophils in the stratum corneum) and dilated dermal papillary capillaries, accounting for the Auspitz sign.
Remember
Psoriasis histology: regular acanthosis with elongated rete ridges, parakeratosis, Munro microabscesses, and dilated papillary capillaries.
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