Gastrointestinal and liver questions span the emergency department, the endoscopy suite and the ward. These ten cover upper GI bleeding, gallstones in pregnancy, cholangitis, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, steatohepatitis and rectal prolapse.
Pick your answer, then open the explanation.
Question 1Acute and emergency
A 30-year-old man attends the emergency department with a small haematemesis after vomiting from alcohol. Before endoscopy, which score should be used to assess whether he can safely be discharged for outpatient management?
- AGlasgow-Blatchford score
- BForrest classification
- CFull Rockall score
- DChild-Pugh score
- EAIMS65 score
Show the answerHide the answer
A. Glasgow-Blatchford score
The Glasgow-Blatchford score is the pre-endoscopy risk tool for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding; it uses urea, haemoglobin, blood pressure, pulse, melaena, syncope and hepatic or cardiac disease, and a score of 0 identifies patients at very low risk who can be considered for early discharge and outpatient endoscopy. The full Rockall score requires endoscopic findings, so it is applied after endoscopy to predict rebleeding and death. AIMS65 predicts mortality but is not the tool UK guidance recommends for discharge decisions. The Forrest classification grades ulcer stigmata at endoscopy.
Remember
The Glasgow-Blatchford score is used before endoscopy in upper GI bleeding; a score of 0 identifies patients who can be considered for early discharge.
Question 2Gastrointestinal including liver
A 45-year-old woman with haematemesis after prolonged vomiting undergoes urgent gastroscopy. A 2 cm longitudinal mucosal tear at the gastro-oesophageal junction is actively oozing blood. What is the most appropriate treatment?
- AIntravenous proton pump inhibitor infusion
- BIntravenous terlipressin
- CBalloon tamponade with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
- DEndoscopic haemostasis with clips or adrenaline injection plus a second modality
- EAngiographic embolisation of the left gastric artery
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Endoscopic haemostasis with clips or adrenaline injection plus a second modality
Most Mallory-Weiss tears stop bleeding spontaneously, but a tear that is actively bleeding at endoscopy is treated at the same procedure with endoscopic therapy, using mechanical clips, adrenaline injection combined with a second modality, or thermal coagulation. Terlipressin is for variceal haemorrhage and has no role in a mucosal tear. High-dose proton pump inhibitor infusion is used after endoscopic treatment of a peptic ulcer with high-risk stigmata; on its own it does not stop active arterial oozing from a tear. Embolisation or surgery is reserved for bleeding that endoscopy cannot control.
Remember
An actively bleeding Mallory-Weiss tear is treated at endoscopy with clips, thermal coagulation or adrenaline injection combined with a second modality; embolisation is reserved for endoscopic failure.
Question 3Cancer
A 70-year-old man with obstructive jaundice from a pancreatic head mass develops rigors, fever, and confusion. Blood tests show raised bilirubin, ALP, and white cell count. What emergency complication has developed?
- AHepatic abscess
- BHepatorenal syndrome
- CAscending cholangitis
- DTumour lysis syndrome
- EAcute pancreatitis
Show the answerHide the answer
C. Ascending cholangitis
Fever with rigors, jaundice, and confusion in a patient with biliary obstruction indicates ascending cholangitis; confusion is one of the two extra features that, added to Charcot triad (fever, jaundice, right upper quadrant pain), form Reynolds pentad of severe cholangitis, the other being hypotension. Obstruction from the pancreatic head mass causes bile stasis and bacterial ascent, requiring urgent IV antibiotics and biliary decompression by ERCP.
Remember
Charcot triad (fever, jaundice, RUQ pain) with confusion or hypotension (Reynolds pentad) in biliary obstruction indicates ascending cholangitis needing urgent ERCP drainage.
Question 4Gastrointestinal including liver
A 61-year-old woman with known cirrhosis and ascites presents with fever, abdominal pain, and confusion. Ascitic fluid neutrophil count is 520 cells/mm3. Blood cultures are pending. What is the most appropriate empirical antibiotic?
- AIV piperacillin-tazobactam
- BOral ciprofloxacin
- CIntravenous cefotaxime
- DOral co-amoxiclav
- EIV metronidazole
Show the answerHide the answer
C. Intravenous cefotaxime
Ascitic neutrophil count ≥250 cells/mm³ in a cirrhotic patient confirms spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP), and empirical IV cefotaxime (or another third-generation cephalosporin) is first-line as it covers the enteric Gram-negative organisms (E. coli, Klebsiella) and streptococci responsible for most cases. IV albumin (1.5 g/kg day 1, 1 g/kg day 3) should be co-administered to reduce hepatorenal syndrome and mortality.
Remember
SBP is diagnosed at ascitic neutrophils ≥250/mm³ and treated empirically with IV cefotaxime plus IV albumin.
Question 5Gastrointestinal including liver
A 32-year-old woman at 18 weeks' gestation presents with her third episode of severe right upper quadrant pain this month, one requiring admission. Ultrasound confirms multiple gallstones with a normal common bile duct. Liver function tests and amylase are normal. What is the most appropriate management?
- APercutaneous cholecystostomy under ultrasound guidance
- BEndoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography with sphincterotomy
- COral ursodeoxycholic acid with planned interval cholecystectomy
- DLaparoscopic cholecystectomy
- EContinued analgesia and dietary modification until postpartum surgery
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the definitive treatment for symptomatic gallstones in pregnancy and is recommended for recurrent biliary colic to prevent progression to cholecystitis, cholangitis or gallstone pancreatitis, which carry significant fetal loss rates. The second trimester is the optimal operative window as organogenesis is complete and the gravid uterus does not yet obstruct laparoscopic access; laparoscopy is safe throughout pregnancy when clinically indicated.
Remember
Symptomatic gallstones in pregnancy should be managed surgically rather than expectantly, with the second trimester being the safest operative window.
Question 6Gastrointestinal including liver
An 85-year-old man with severe heart failure (NYHA IV), dementia, and an ASA grade 4 classification develops acute cholecystitis. He is too unfit for general anaesthesia and laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He is not improving with intravenous antibiotics alone after 48 hours. What is the most appropriate intervention?
- AEndoscopic ultrasound-guided gallbladder drainage
- BERCP with cystic duct stenting
- COpen cholecystectomy under local anaesthesia
- DPercutaneous cholecystostomy
- EContinue intravenous antibiotics
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Percutaneous cholecystostomy
Percutaneous cholecystostomy is the correct choice: it provides source control by draining the infected gallbladder via an image-guided catheter inserted under local anaesthesia and sedation, avoiding the physiological stress of general anaesthesia. It is reserved for patients who are genuinely unfit for general anaesthesia and cholecystectomy, as here, when acute cholecystitis fails conservative therapy; fitter high-risk patients do better with early laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
Remember
Percutaneous cholecystostomy under local anaesthesia is the intervention of choice for acute cholecystitis in patients unfit for surgery.
Question 7Gastrointestinal including liver
A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes (HbA1c 62 mmol/mol on metformin) has biopsy-proven steatohepatitis with bridging fibrosis. His hepatologist asks the diabetes team to add a glucose-lowering drug that also improves liver histology. He has no history of heart failure or bladder cancer. Which drug is most appropriate?
- ASitagliptin
- BAcarbose
- CPioglitazone
- DInsulin glargine
- EGliclazide
Show the answerHide the answer
C. Pioglitazone
Pioglitazone improves insulin sensitivity in adipose tissue and liver and is the glucose-lowering drug with the strongest trial evidence for resolving steatohepatitis, so it is a recognised option for adults with steatohepatitis and advanced fibrosis under specialist care. It causes weight gain, fluid retention and an increased fracture risk, and is contraindicated in heart failure and in anyone with a history of bladder cancer, which is why those were checked. Sulfonylureas, DPP-4 inhibitors, basal insulin and acarbose all lower glucose without any demonstrated benefit on liver inflammation or fibrosis. Weight loss remains the foundation of treatment alongside any drug.
Remember
Pioglitazone is the glucose-lowering drug with evidence of improving steatohepatitis histology and is considered for advanced fibrosis under specialist care.
Question 8Dermatology
A 42-year-old man with a 10-year history of ulcerative colitis develops a rapidly enlarging painful pustule on his lower leg that breaks down over 4 days into a deep ulcer with a violaceous undermined border. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- APyoderma gangrenosum
- BCutaneous vasculitis
- CNecrotising fasciitis
- DCutaneous Crohn's disease
- ESweet's syndrome
Show the answerHide the answer
A. Pyoderma gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a neutrophilic dermatosis classically associated with IBD, rheumatoid arthritis and haematological malignancy, presenting as a rapidly expanding painful ulcer with a violaceous undermined border. Treatment is potent topical or intralesional corticosteroids for localised disease and systemic immunosuppression (oral steroids, ciclosporin or biologics) for severe disease; surgical debridement causes pathergy and is contraindicated.
Remember
Pyoderma gangrenosum: rapidly progressive painful ulcer with violaceous undermined edge; debridement causes pathergy and is contraindicated.
Question 9Surgery
A 79-year-old woman has a lump that comes out of the anus after defecation and has to be pushed back, with mucus discharge and soiling. On straining, a 6 cm pink mass with concentric circular folds protrudes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AProlapsing rectal polyp
- BProlapsed internal haemorrhoids
- CProlapsing rectal carcinoma
- DFull-thickness rectal prolapse
- EMucosal rectal prolapse
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Full-thickness rectal prolapse
A circumferential protrusion of several centimetres with concentric rings of mucosa is a full-thickness (complete) rectal prolapse, in which the whole rectal wall intussuscepts through the anus. It is most common in older women with weak pelvic floors and a long history of straining, and mucus, bleeding and faecal incontinence from the stretched sphincter are typical. Prolapsed haemorrhoids are the nearest alternative but form separate lobulated cushions with radial grooves between them rather than concentric rings, and a mucosal prolapse involves mucosa alone, producing radial folds and rarely more than 2 to 3 cm of tissue. A polyp or a polypoid carcinoma prolapses as a discrete mass on a stalk rather than a symmetrical cylinder of bowel.
Remember
Concentric circular mucosal folds on a protruding mass mean full-thickness rectal prolapse; radial folds mean haemorrhoids or mucosal prolapse.
Question 10Gastrointestinal including liver
A 78-year-old woman in a nursing home develops constipation after being started on codeine 30 mg four times daily for back pain. What is the primary mechanism by which opioids cause constipation?
- ABlockade of enteric 5-HT4 receptors
- BEnteric anticholinergic effect
- CDirect smooth muscle paralysis
- DMu-opioid receptor activation
- EIncreased colonic fluid absorption
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Mu-opioid receptor activation
Opioids cause constipation primarily through activation of mu-opioid receptors on enteric neurones of the myenteric and submucosal plexuses, which inhibits acetylcholine release, reduces propulsive peristalsis, increases non-propulsive segmental contractions, and raises anal sphincter tone. Co-prescription of a stimulant laxative (such as senna) from initiation is recommended because tolerance to this adverse effect does not develop.
Remember
Opioid-induced constipation is mediated by enteric mu-opioid receptor activation and warrants prophylactic stimulant laxatives, as tolerance does not develop.
WardRun has more than 800 questions that touch gastrointestinal and liver, mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map. For a mix from every area, try ten questions from across the map.
A new set every day
6,800+ questions mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map, free every day with every answer explained. Climb your medical school's table.
Start today's run