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Free UKMLA ear, nose and throat questions with explanations

Ear, nose and throat questions often turn on the airway and the red flags you must not miss. These ten cover epiglottitis, retropharyngeal and peritonsillar abscess, mastoiditis and its complications, cholesteatoma, nasal polyps and acute vertigo.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Child health

A 4-year-old child presents with acute onset high fever, drooling, muffled voice, and severe sore throat. He is sitting upright, leaning forward with his neck extended. He is stridulous and looks toxic. What is the most important immediate action?

  1. ACall senior anaesthetist for airway management
  2. BGive oral antibiotics and observe
  3. CObtain a lateral neck X-ray first
  4. DAttempt IV cannulation for fluids and antibiotics
  5. EExamine the throat with a tongue depressor
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A. Call senior anaesthetist for airway management

The clinical picture of high fever, drooling, muffled (hot potato) voice, tripod posture and stridor in a toxic child is classical acute epiglottitis, a life-threatening airway emergency where the priority is urgent senior anaesthetic (and ENT) involvement to secure the airway in a controlled setting such as theatre. Any distress, including examination, cannulation or lying the child flat, may precipitate complete airway obstruction.

Remember

In suspected epiglottitis, do not examine the throat or distress the child; call senior anaesthetics and ENT immediately to secure the airway.

Question 2Ear, nose and throat

A 3-year-old girl is brought to A&E with neck stiffness, drooling, fever and refusal to eat. She holds her neck extended. A lateral neck radiograph shows widening of the prevertebral soft tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. APeritonsillar abscess
  2. BCroup
  3. CAcute epiglottitis
  4. DMeningitis
  5. ERetropharyngeal abscess
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E. Retropharyngeal abscess

Retropharyngeal abscess typically affects children aged 2–4 because of prominent retropharyngeal lymph nodes, presenting with neck stiffness, drooling, fever and a preference for neck extension. The lateral neck radiograph shows widened prevertebral soft tissue; after securing the airway, contrast CT confirms the collection; IV antibiotics are started, with surgical drainage for a large collection, airway compromise or failure to improve.

Remember

Toddler with neck extension, drooling and widened prevertebral soft tissue on lateral X-ray = retropharyngeal abscess.

Question 3Ear, nose and throat

A 24-year-old man has a peritonsillar abscess drained by needle aspiration and the pus is sent for culture. Which organism is most commonly isolated?

  1. AStaphylococcus aureus
  2. BStreptococcus pyogenes
  3. CStreptococcus pneumoniae
  4. DStreptococcus agalactiae
  5. EHaemophilus influenzae
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B. Streptococcus pyogenes

Quinsy is usually a polymicrobial infection, but group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes) is the organism most often isolated, reflecting its role as the commonest bacterial cause of the tonsillitis from which the abscess arises. Oral anaerobes, particularly Fusobacterium necrophorum and Prevotella species, are the next most frequent and are the reason metronidazole is often added to penicillin after drainage. Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophilus influenzae are recovered in a minority of cases. The practical consequence is that a penicillin remains the first-line antibiotic after drainage, with a macrolide or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.

Remember

Streptococcus pyogenes is the organism most commonly isolated from a peritonsillar abscess, usually alongside oral anaerobes such as Fusobacterium.

Question 4Ear, nose and throat

A 23-year-old woman is recovering from her second peritonsillar abscess in 18 months. Both were drained and settled with antibiotics. What is the most appropriate long-term management?

  1. AReferral for elective adenoidectomy
  2. BReassurance that no further treatment is needed
  3. CImmediate tonsillectomy during the current admission
  4. DLong-term prophylactic phenoxymethylpenicillin
  5. EReferral for elective interval tonsillectomy
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E. Referral for elective interval tonsillectomy

Recurrent peritonsillar abscess is an accepted indication for tonsillectomy, because a second quinsy carries a high chance of further episodes and each one risks deep neck spread. In UK practice this is done as an elective interval procedure around 6 weeks after the acute episode has settled, when the tissues are no longer inflamed and the haemorrhage risk is lower. Tonsillectomy during the acute infection (hot tonsillectomy) is occasionally used to drain an inaccessible abscess but is not the routine UK approach for a resolving episode. Prophylactic antibiotics do not remove the tonsillar crypts in which the infection begins and encourage resistance.

Remember

A second peritonsillar abscess is an indication for elective interval tonsillectomy once the acute episode has settled.

Question 5Ear, nose and throat

A 3-year-old boy with acute otitis media develops fever, postauricular swelling and tenderness with the pinna pushed forward. He is alert, well hydrated and has no neurological signs. What is the most appropriate initial management?

  1. AOral amoxicillin with review in 48 hours
  2. BAdmit for intravenous antibiotics
  3. CIncision and drainage of the postauricular swelling
  4. DMyringotomy with grommet insertion
  5. ECortical mastoidectomy
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B. Admit for intravenous antibiotics

Acute mastoiditis is a suppurative infection of the mastoid air cells complicating otitis media and needs admission for intravenous antibiotics that cover Streptococcus pneumoniae, Streptococcus pyogenes, Haemophilus influenzae and Staphylococcus aureus; most uncomplicated cases settle within 48 hours. Oral antibiotics are inadequate once infection has spread beyond the middle ear into bone. Myringotomy is a useful adjunct to drain the middle ear and obtain culture, and cortical mastoidectomy is reserved for a subperiosteal abscess, intracranial complication or failure to improve on intravenous treatment.

Remember

Uncomplicated acute mastoiditis is managed with admission and intravenous antibiotics; mastoidectomy is for abscess, intracranial spread or failure to improve.

Question 6Ear, nose and throat

A 5-year-old girl admitted with acute mastoiditis on intravenous antibiotics becomes drowsy on day 2 with a severe headache and vomiting. Which imaging is most appropriate?

  1. AContrast-enhanced CT of the temporal bones and brain
  2. BNon-contrast MRI of the internal auditory meati
  3. CHigh-resolution CT of the temporal bones without contrast
  4. DUltrasound of the postauricular swelling
  5. EPlain mastoid radiographs
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A. Contrast-enhanced CT of the temporal bones and brain

Drowsiness, headache and vomiting in a child with mastoiditis signal an intracranial complication such as sigmoid sinus thrombosis, epidural or cerebral abscess, or meningitis, and contrast-enhanced CT of the temporal bones with the brain is the first-line urgent investigation because it shows bony erosion, subperiosteal or intracranial collections and a filling defect in a thrombosed sinus. Non-contrast bone-window CT defines the mastoid but misses abscesses and sinus thrombosis. MRI with venography is a valuable second study when CT is equivocal, but a focused non-contrast study of the internal auditory meati would not answer the question.

Remember

New drowsiness, headache or vomiting in mastoiditis means intracranial spread; urgent contrast-enhanced CT of temporal bones and brain is the first investigation.

Question 7Ear, nose and throat

A 45-year-old man has had 3 months of offensive discharge from the right ear and gradually worsening hearing on that side. Otoscopy shows brown crust in the upper part of the tympanic membrane. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. AReferral to ENT for microscopic examination of the ear
  2. BReassure and review in 3 months
  3. CTopical antibiotic and steroid drops for 2 weeks
  4. DEar swab and antibiotic guided by culture
  5. EEar syringing to remove the crust
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A. Referral to ENT for microscopic examination of the ear

Persistent unilateral offensive discharge with hearing loss and crust or debris in the attic, the upper part of the drum, is the presentation of cholesteatoma in adults, and the crust often hides a retraction pocket full of keratin. It cannot be diagnosed or treated in primary care: the ear needs cleaning and inspection under the microscope, followed by CT to plan surgery. Antibiotic drops may dry the discharge for a while but do not remove the keratin sac, and repeated courses delay the diagnosis while the disease erodes bone. Syringing is unsafe with a possible perforation, and waiting risks facial nerve palsy, labyrinthine fistula and intracranial infection.

Remember

Unilateral offensive ear discharge with attic crusting is cholesteatoma until an ENT surgeon has looked under the microscope; do not treat it with repeated drops.

Question 8Ear, nose and throat

A 44-year-old man has 6 months of bilateral nasal blockage, loss of smell and postnasal drip. Anterior rhinoscopy shows pale grey, smooth, insensate swellings in both middle meatuses. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

  1. AShort course of oral prednisolone
  2. BEndoscopic sinus surgery with polypectomy
  3. CIntranasal corticosteroid spray
  4. DOral non-sedating antihistamine
  5. EOral doxycycline for 3 weeks
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C. Intranasal corticosteroid spray

Bilateral pale insensate swellings with hyposmia are nasal polyps, the hallmark of chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps, a type 2 eosinophilic inflammatory disease of the sinus lining. First-line treatment is a daily intranasal corticosteroid with saline irrigation, which shrinks polyps and improves obstruction and smell with negligible systemic absorption; it is continued long term because polyps regrow when it stops. A short oral steroid course is added for severe obstruction or before surgery, and endoscopic surgery is reserved for failure of medical treatment and does not remove the need for ongoing topical steroid. Antihistamines help if there is coexisting allergic rhinitis, and antibiotics have no role without infection. Unilateral polyps, or polyps in a child, need a different approach because they raise the possibility of tumour or cystic fibrosis.

Remember

Bilateral nasal polyps are treated first with a long-term intranasal corticosteroid spray; surgery is for medical treatment failure.

Question 9Ear, nose and throat

A 34-year-old woman has 3 days of continuous rotational vertigo with vomiting, one week after a cold. She has new left-sided hearing loss and tinnitus. Examination shows horizontal nystagmus and no other neurological signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AMeniere's disease
  2. BVestibular neuritis
  3. CBenign paroxysmal positional vertigo
  4. DLabyrinthitis
  5. EVestibular schwannoma
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D. Labyrinthitis

Labyrinthitis is inflammation of the whole inner ear, usually after a viral upper respiratory infection, so it produces the acute vestibular syndrome of continuous vertigo, nausea and nystagmus lasting days together with cochlear symptoms: hearing loss and tinnitus on the affected side. Vestibular neuritis is the same viral process confined to the vestibular nerve and gives an identical vertigo but with normal hearing, so hearing loss is the discriminator between the two. Meniere's disease also combines vertigo with hearing loss and tinnitus but in recurrent attacks lasting minutes to hours with fluctuating low-frequency loss and aural fullness, not a single continuous episode after a cold. Treatment is short-term vestibular sedation then mobilisation.

Remember

Continuous vertigo for days after a viral illness is vestibular neuritis if hearing is normal and labyrinthitis if there is hearing loss or tinnitus.

Question 10Ear, nose and throat

A 52-year-old woman with known Meniere's disease attends the emergency department mid-attack with severe rotational vertigo and vomiting that began 90 minutes ago. She is distressed and unable to stand. What is the most appropriate immediate drug?

  1. AProchlorperazine
  2. BBetahistine
  3. CIntratympanic gentamicin
  4. DBendroflumethiazide
  5. EAmitriptyline
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A. Prochlorperazine

Acute Meniere's attacks are managed symptomatically with a vestibular sedative/antiemetic such as prochlorperazine (buccal, IM or oral) or cinnarizine to suppress the vertigo and nausea while the attack settles. These agents abort symptoms during the episode but are not used for long-term prevention because of sedation and the risk of delaying central compensation. UK practice reserves long-term and interventional measures for prophylaxis between attacks.

Remember

Acute Meniere's attacks are treated with a vestibular sedative/antiemetic such as prochlorperazine or cinnarizine; these are not for long-term prevention.

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