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Free UKMLA endocrine and metabolic questions with explanations

Endocrine and metabolic questions reward knowing which test to trust and when. These ten cover thyroid disease, adrenal insufficiency, severe hypoglycaemia, cerebral oedema in DKA and the skin and breast signs of endocrine disease.

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Question 1Acute and emergency

A patient in DKA develops sudden severe headache and reduced consciousness 8 hours into treatment. What complication must be urgently considered?

  1. AHypokalaemia-induced arrhythmia
  2. BMeningitis
  3. CCerebral oedema
  4. DPulmonary embolism
  5. EHyperchloraemic acidosis
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C. Cerebral oedema

Cerebral oedema is the most feared complication of DKA treatment, classically presenting 4 to 12 hours after initiation with headache, reduced consciousness, and signs of raised intracranial pressure such as bradycardia, hypertension and papilloedema. It is more common in children and young adults and carries a mortality of around 20 to 25%; urgent management is IV mannitol or hypertonic saline with critical care input (BSPED DKA guideline).

Remember

Sudden headache and reduced GCS 4 to 12 hours into DKA treatment should prompt immediate consideration of cerebral oedema and treatment with mannitol or hypertonic saline.

Question 2Child health

A 35-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is found drowsy and sweaty by his partner. He is confused and unable to swallow safely. A capillary reading confirms severe hypoglycaemia. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

  1. AOral sugary drink
  2. BObservation pending spontaneous recovery
  3. CSubcutaneous rapid-acting insulin
  4. DBuccal glucose gel by carer
  5. EIntramuscular glucagon 1 mg
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E. Intramuscular glucagon 1 mg

In severe hypoglycaemia with impaired consciousness or unsafe swallow, parenteral therapy is required; IM glucagon 1 mg is appropriate in the community setting where IV access is not immediately available, per the Joint British Diabetes Societies inpatient hypoglycaemia guideline. Glucagon mobilises hepatic glycogen stores, raising blood sugar within 10–15 minutes, after which oral carbohydrate should be given once swallow is safe. In hospital, IV 10% dextrose (150–200 mL) is the alternative.

Remember

IM glucagon 1 mg is the first-line community treatment for severe hypoglycaemia when the patient cannot swallow safely and IV access is unavailable.

Question 3Endocrine and metabolic

A 62-year-old man with fatigue and orthostatic hypotension has morning cortisol 120 nmol/L. His endocrinologist arranges a specific dynamic test to confirm primary adrenal insufficiency. Which test is first-line?

  1. ARandom cortisol
  2. BShort Synacthen test
  3. C9am ACTH with paired cortisol
  4. D24h urinary cortisol
  5. EAldosterone/renin ratio
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B. Short Synacthen test

The Short Synacthen (ACTH stimulation) test is the first-line dynamic investigation to confirm primary adrenal insufficiency: 250 micrograms of synthetic ACTH is given IM or IV and serum cortisol measured at 0 and 30 minutes, with a peak below approximately 500 to 550 nmol/L indicating an inadequate adrenal response. In Addison disease the diseased adrenal cortex cannot respond, producing a flat cortisol curve alongside elevated baseline ACTH.

Remember

A 30-minute cortisol of >500 to 550 nmol/L after 250 micrograms synthetic ACTH excludes primary adrenal insufficiency.

Question 4Endocrine and metabolic

A 45-year-old woman with Addison's disease is scheduled for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy under general anaesthesia. She normally takes hydrocortisone 20 mg daily. What is the most appropriate perioperative steroid management?

  1. AWithhold hydrocortisone for 24 hours preoperatively
  2. BOral dexamethasone 8 mg the night before surgery
  3. CContinue usual oral hydrocortisone 20 mg on the morning of surgery
  4. DDouble oral hydrocortisone for 48 hours perioperatively
  5. EIV hydrocortisone 100 mg at induction, then 50 mg 6-hourly for 24 hours
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E. IV hydrocortisone 100 mg at induction, then 50 mg 6-hourly for 24 hours

Patients with primary adrenal insufficiency cannot mount an endogenous cortisol stress response and require parenteral glucocorticoid cover to prevent intraoperative Addisonian crisis. Society for Endocrinology UK guidance for major surgery recommends IV hydrocortisone 100 mg at induction followed by 50 mg 6-hourly (or a 200 mg/24 h continuous infusion) for 24 hours, then doubling the usual oral dose for 48–72 hours before returning to maintenance.

Remember

Major surgery in adrenal insufficiency requires IV hydrocortisone 100 mg at induction followed by 50 mg 6-hourly (or 200 mg/24 h infusion) for 24 hours to cover the surgical cortisol surge.

Question 5Endocrine and metabolic

A 45-year-old woman with hypopituitarism after pituitary surgery takes hydrocortisone and levothyroxine. Which test should be used to judge whether her levothyroxine dose is adequate?

  1. ATotal T4
  2. BTSH
  3. CThyroid peroxidase antibodies
  4. DFree T3
  5. EFree T4
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E. Free T4

In primary hypothyroidism the pituitary senses thyroid hormone levels and TSH is the sensitive guide to dosing, but in secondary (central) hypothyroidism the pituitary is the diseased organ, so TSH is low or inappropriately normal whatever the dose and cannot be used. Levothyroxine is therefore titrated to keep the free T4 in the upper half of the reference range, alongside symptoms. Free T3 fluctuates and is largely derived from peripheral conversion, and total T4 is distorted by binding-protein changes (for example on oestrogen), so neither is the standard monitoring test. Hydrocortisone must already be in place before thyroid replacement is started or increased.

Remember

Monitor levothyroxine in central hypothyroidism with free T4 (aim upper half of range), not TSH, which is unreliable when the pituitary is the problem.

Question 6Child health

A 28-year-old woman has weight loss, heat intolerance, palpitations, tremor, diarrhoea and anxiety. Examination reveals tachycardia, warm peripheries, fine tremor, and diffuse smooth goitre with bruit. Eye signs include lid retraction, lid lag and proptosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AGraves' disease
  2. BToxic multinodular goitre
  3. CTSH-secreting pituitary adenoma
  4. DFactitious thyrotoxicosis
  5. EDe Quervain's thyroiditis
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A. Graves' disease

Graves' disease is an autoimmune thyrotoxicosis caused by stimulating TSH receptor antibodies, producing a diffuse smooth goitre (often with bruit from hypervascularity) and extrathyroidal features such as orbitopathy (proptosis, periorbital oedema, ophthalmoplegia) which is specific to Graves', whereas lid retraction and lid lag occur in thyrotoxicosis of any cause. TRAb testing is recommended to confirm the diagnosis.

Remember

Thyrotoxicosis with a diffuse goitre, bruit and orbitopathy is Graves' disease, confirmed by positive TSH receptor antibodies.

Question 7Endocrine and metabolic

A 40-year-old woman with Graves disease has progressive proptosis, diplopia on upgaze and mild restriction of ocular motility. The ophthalmologist wants to characterise extraocular muscle involvement, assess whether it is actively inflamed, and screen for apical crowding. Which imaging investigation is most appropriate?

  1. ACT orbits with thin cuts
  2. BMRI orbits with fat suppression
  3. CB-scan ocular ultrasound
  4. DOrbital colour Doppler ultrasound
  5. EOptical coherence tomography of the optic nerve head
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B. MRI orbits with fat suppression

MRI of the orbits with fat-suppressed sequences (STIR/T2) is the imaging modality of choice in thyroid eye disease: it shows fusiform extraocular muscle enlargement with tendon sparing, distinguishes active inflammatory oedema from chronic fibrosis, and identifies apical crowding causing optic nerve compression, all without ionising radiation. CT orbits is reserved for surgical planning when bony decompression is being considered (EUGOGO 2021).

Remember

In thyroid eye disease, MRI or CT orbit shows enlarged extraocular muscle bellies with sparing of the tendinous insertions.

Question 8Endocrine and metabolic

A 68-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of a rapidly enlarging firm anterior neck mass, progressive hoarseness and stridor. She is otherwise well. On examination there is a hard, fixed midline mass with associated cervical lymphadenopathy. Which thyroid cancer subtype is most likely?

  1. APrimary thyroid lymphoma
  2. BAnaplastic thyroid carcinoma
  3. CPapillary thyroid carcinoma
  4. DMetastasis to the thyroid (e.g. renal cell carcinoma)
  5. EMedullary thyroid carcinoma
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B. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma

Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma characteristically affects elderly patients and presents with a rapidly enlarging, hard, fixed neck mass with early invasion of local structures producing hoarseness (recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement) and stridor (tracheal compression). It is an undifferentiated malignancy with a median survival of around 6 months, and urgent multidisciplinary assessment with airway protection as a priority is recommended.

Remember

A rapidly enlarging, hard, fixed thyroid mass with hoarseness or stridor in an elderly patient is anaplastic thyroid carcinoma until proven otherwise, with airway protection the immediate priority.

Question 9Dermatology

A 34-year-old woman with central obesity, hypertension and impaired fasting glucose notices symmetrical dark, velvety thickening of the skin in both axillae and around the back of her neck. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AErythrasma
  2. BAcanthosis nigricans
  3. CPost-inflammatory hyperpigmentation
  4. DAddison's disease
  5. EPityriasis versicolor
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B. Acanthosis nigricans

Acanthosis nigricans is symmetrical velvety hyperpigmented thickening of flexural skin, most often the neck and axillae, caused by hyperinsulinaemia stimulating keratinocyte and fibroblast growth through insulin-like growth factor receptors. In an obese adult it is a cutaneous marker of insulin resistance and should prompt a check for type 2 diabetes. Rapid onset in an older, non-obese person can signal an internal malignancy, usually gastric adenocarcinoma. Erythrasma is a flat brown intertriginous patch that fluoresces coral-red under Wood's light; pityriasis versicolor is scaly and truncal; post-inflammatory change follows a preceding rash; Addisonian pigmentation affects palmar creases, scars and buccal mucosa with fatigue and hypotension.

Remember

Velvety hyperpigmented flexural thickening in an obese adult is acanthosis nigricans, a cutaneous marker of insulin resistance.

Question 10Cancer

A 54-year-old man with Klinefelter syndrome, on long-term testosterone replacement, has had bilateral soft gynaecomastia since adolescence. Over 2 months he has noticed a new painless 2 cm hard, fixed lump behind the left nipple, and the nipple has become retracted. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AGynaecomastia
  2. BBreast carcinoma
  3. CBreast abscess
  4. DLipoma
  5. EFat necrosis
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B. Breast carcinoma

Men with Klinefelter syndrome have a risk of breast cancer many times that of other men, attributed to the long-standing high oestrogen-to-androgen ratio acting on breast tissue, and it is, with BRCA2 carriers, a male group in whom a breast lump should raise cancer as the first thought. Gynaecomastia, which he already has, is a soft or rubbery, mobile, concentric disc beneath the areola and is usually bilateral; a new unilateral, hard, fixed, eccentric mass with nipple retraction is the pattern of carcinoma, whatever the background. He needs an urgent suspected cancer referral for triple assessment with examination, imaging and core biopsy.

Remember

Klinefelter syndrome greatly increases male breast cancer risk; a hard, fixed lump with nipple retraction on a background of gynaecomastia is carcinoma until proved otherwise.

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