Dermatology questions test pattern recognition and knowing which rash is an emergency. These ten cover severe drug reactions, scabies, erythema nodosum, pityriasis versicolor, lichen planus, urticaria, dermatofibroma and an actinic keratosis that has changed.
Pick your answer, then open the explanation.
Question 1Dermatology
A 55-year-old man starts allopurinol for gout. Two weeks later he develops widespread rash and oral and ocular ulcers. Which reaction is this?
- AErythema multiforme
- BFixed drug eruption
- CUrticaria
- DContact dermatitis
- EStevens-Johnson syndrome
Show the answerHide the answer
E. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
This presentation of widespread rash with oral and ocular mucosal ulceration two weeks after starting allopurinol is characteristic of Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), a severe cutaneous adverse reaction with epidermal detachment of less than 10% body surface area and involvement of two or more mucosal sites. Allopurinol is among the most frequently implicated drugs in the UK, particularly in HLA-B*58:01 carriers, and requires immediate withdrawal plus specialist burns or dermatology input.
Remember
Allopurinol-induced rash with mucosal involvement within weeks of initiation suggests Stevens-Johnson syndrome and mandates urgent drug cessation.
Question 2Dermatology
A 35-year-old woman started carbamazepine 4 weeks ago for trigeminal neuralgia. She presents with a 5-day history of fever (39.2 degrees), a widespread morbilliform rash, facial oedema, cervical lymphadenopathy, and blood tests showing eosinophil count 2.4 x 10^9/L and ALT 320 U/L. Which condition is most likely?
- AAcute viral hepatitis with exanthem
- BStevens-Johnson syndrome
- CDRESS syndrome
- DSerum sickness-like reaction
- EAcute generalised exanthematous pustulosis
Show the answerHide the answer
C. DRESS syndrome
DRESS (drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms) typically appears 2-8 weeks after starting a culprit drug (commonly carbamazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine, allopurinol or sulphonamides) and combines fever, morbilliform rash, facial oedema, lymphadenopathy, eosinophilia and organ involvement (most commonly hepatitis). Immediate drug withdrawal and supportive care, with systemic corticosteroids in severe cases, are the mainstays.
Remember
DRESS classically presents 2-8 weeks after a culprit drug with the triad of fever, rash and organ involvement, with eosinophilia.
Question 3Dermatology
A 24-year-old man with generalised epilepsy has taken sodium valproate for six years. He has hay fever. Lamotrigine was added 12 days ago at 25 mg daily. He now has a widespread tender erythematous rash with blistering and oral erosions. Which factor most increased his risk of this reaction?
- AHistory of atopy
- BConcurrent sodium valproate therapy
- CGeneralised rather than focal epilepsy
- DAge under 25 years
- EMale sex
Show the answerHide the answer
B. Concurrent sodium valproate therapy
Valproate inhibits the glucuronidation that clears lamotrigine, roughly doubling its half-life and plasma concentration at any given dose. Rapid rises in lamotrigine level early in treatment are the main driver of serious skin reactions, which is why the starting dose is halved to 25 mg on alternate days and titrated more slowly in anyone taking valproate. Starting at the usual 25 mg daily in a valproate-treated patient therefore exposes him to an effectively doubled dose. Atopy, sex, age and epilepsy syndrome do not materially alter the risk.
Remember
Valproate inhibits lamotrigine glucuronidation, so lamotrigine must be started at half the usual dose and titrated slowly to reduce the risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Question 4Dermatology
A 20-year-old man presents with intense nocturnal pruritus and a widespread excoriated papular rash for the past three weeks. Examination reveals linear burrows in the finger webs, flexor wrists and genital area. His housemate has developed similar symptoms. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
- AOral aciclovir
- BTopical permethrin 5% cream
- COral ivermectin single dose
- DTopical clotrimazole 1% cream
- ETopical betamethasone 0.1% ointment
Show the answerHide the answer
B. Topical permethrin 5% cream
The history of intense nocturnal pruritus, linear burrows in classic sites (finger webs, flexor wrists, genitals) and an affected household contact is diagnostic of scabies (Sarcoptes scabiei). Topical permethrin 5% cream is recommended as first-line, applied to the whole body, left on for 8 to 12 hours, and repeated after 7 days, with simultaneous treatment of all close contacts and laundering of clothing and bedding at 50°C or higher.
Remember
Topical permethrin 5% is first-line for classical scabies, with simultaneous treatment of all close contacts.
Question 5Dermatology
A biopsy is taken from an atypical tender red nodule on the shin of a 35-year-old woman with suspected erythema nodosum. Which histological pattern would confirm the diagnosis?
- ALobular panniculitis with fat necrosis
- BLeukocytoclastic vasculitis of dermal venules
- CSeptal panniculitis without vasculitis
- DNeutrophilic dermal infiltrate without vasculitis
- ENon-caseating dermal granulomas
Show the answerHide the answer
C. Septal panniculitis without vasculitis
Erythema nodosum is the prototypic septal panniculitis: inflammation is centred on the fibrous septa of the subcutaneous fat, with a mixed infiltrate and small granulomatous clusters (Miescher's radial granulomas) but no vasculitis and no fat necrosis, which is why the nodules do not ulcerate and heal without scarring. Lobular panniculitis with fat necrosis and vasculitis is the pattern of erythema induratum (nodular vasculitis), the main histological mimic, which affects the calves and ulcerates. Leukocytoclastic vasculitis produces palpable purpura rather than deep nodules, and a neutrophilic dermal infiltrate without vasculitis defines Sweet syndrome.
Remember
Erythema nodosum is a septal panniculitis without vasculitis; erythema induratum is its lobular, vasculitic, ulcerating mimic on the calves.
Question 6Dermatology
A 23-year-old woman with skin of colour returns from a summer holiday with extensive confluent hypopigmented patches across her upper back and chest that became more obvious after sun exposure. Wood's lamp examination shows a yellow-green fluorescence. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
- ATopical ketoconazole 2% shampoo applied as a body wash
- BOral fluconazole 150 mg weekly for 4 weeks
- CTopical clotrimazole 1% cream
- DTopical hydrocortisone 1% cream
- EOral terbinafine 250 mg daily
Show the answerHide the answer
A. Topical ketoconazole 2% shampoo applied as a body wash
Pityriasis versicolor, caused by Malassezia yeasts (most often M. globosa), presents as hypopigmented or hyperpigmented finely scaling patches on the upper trunk, often more visible after sun-induced tanning, and fluoresces yellow-green under Wood's light. Topical ketoconazole shampoo or selenium sulfide is recommended as first-line; both are effective, but ketoconazole shampoo is generally better tolerated and easier to use as a short body wash regimen.
Remember
Pityriasis versicolor is a superficial Malassezia infection; first-line treatment is a topical imidazole, with oral therapy reserved for failure of topical treatment.
Question 7Dermatology
A 45-year-old woman has a 2-month history of intensely itchy, violaceous, flat-topped papules on both wrists and ankles covering under 5% of her body surface. Skin biopsy confirms lichen planus. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
- AOral acitretin
- BOral prednisolone
- CNarrowband UVB phototherapy
- DTopical tacrolimus
- EPotent topical corticosteroid
Show the answerHide the answer
E. Potent topical corticosteroid
Localised cutaneous lichen planus is treated first with a potent or very potent topical corticosteroid, such as clobetasol propionate or betamethasone valerate 0.1%, applied to the papules until they flatten, with an emollient and a sedating antihistamine at night for the itch. The disease is self-limiting in most people within one to two years, so treatment aims at symptom control and limiting post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. Systemic corticosteroids are held back for widespread, rapidly progressive, erosive or nail-destroying disease, and phototherapy or acitretin for extensive disease that fails topical treatment. Topical calcineurin inhibitors are used mainly for mucosal, genital or facial disease where long-term steroid use is undesirable.
Remember
First-line treatment for localised cutaneous lichen planus is a potent topical corticosteroid; systemic treatment is reserved for extensive or erosive disease.
Question 8Child health
A 25-year-old woman has recurrent itchy, pink raised plaques lasting less than 24 hours each, triggered by various foods and heat exposure, with no lip or tongue swelling. Symptoms have been present for 3 weeks and are interfering with sleep. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AOral chlorphenamine
- BTopical hydrocortisone
- COral cetirizine
- DIntramuscular adrenaline
- EOral prednisolone
Show the answerHide the answer
C. Oral cetirizine
Urticaria is histamine-mediated, so a standard-dose second-generation non-sedating H1 antihistamine such as cetirizine is first-line and can be up-titrated to four times the licensed dose if symptoms persist. First-generation sedating antihistamines are avoided due to impaired cognition and sleep architecture. Escalation to omalizumab or ciclosporin is reserved for chronic refractory disease. Takeaway: Manage urticaria first-line with a non-sedating second-generation antihistamine, not a sedating one or systemic steroids.
Remember
Second-generation non-sedating H1 antihistamines are first-line for urticaria and may be up-titrated to four times the licensed dose before escalating therapy.
Question 9Dermatology
A 34-year-old woman has a 7 mm firm, slightly raised, pink-brown nodule on her left shin that appeared a few months after an insect bite. Pinching the skin either side of it makes the lesion sink inwards. It is otherwise asymptomatic. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
- AKeloid scar
- BPyogenic granuloma
- CNodular melanoma
- DDermatofibroma
- EEpidermal cyst
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Dermatofibroma
A dermatofibroma is a benign fibrous dermal nodule, most often on the lower legs of young to middle-aged adults, sometimes following minor trauma such as an insect bite. The lesion is firm and tethered to the overlying epidermis, so lateral pressure produces the characteristic dimple sign. It is harmless and is left alone unless symptomatic. The features that would raise concern for a nodular melanoma are rapid growth, irregular pigmentation, bleeding or ulceration, none of which is present.
Remember
A firm shin nodule that dimples on lateral pressure is a dermatofibroma and needs no treatment.
Question 10Dermatology
A 78-year-old retired farmer has multiple rough, scaly, pink patches on his bald scalp and the backs of his hands, present for years. He attends because one lesion on the scalp has changed over the last six weeks: it is now 1 cm across, thickened, tender and firm to touch. Which is the most appropriate action?
- ATreat the lesion with cryotherapy in primary care
- BPrescribe topical 5-fluorouracil cream to the scalp
- CPrescribe topical diclofenac gel for three months
- DRefer urgently under the suspected skin cancer pathway
- ERoutine dermatology referral
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Refer urgently under the suspected skin cancer pathway
Multiple rough scaly patches on chronically sun-exposed skin in an elderly outdoor worker are actinic keratoses, which are premalignant. Most are managed in primary care with field treatments or cryotherapy, but an actinic keratosis that becomes thickened, indurated, tender, rapidly enlarging or ulcerated has features of transformation to squamous cell carcinoma and must be referred urgently under the suspected skin cancer pathway. Induration and tenderness are the most useful warning signs because they suggest dermal invasion. Treating a possible SCC with topical field therapy or cryotherapy delays diagnosis.
Remember
An actinic keratosis that becomes thickened, indurated, tender or rapidly enlarging needs urgent referral for suspected squamous cell carcinoma.
WardRun has more than 250 questions that touch dermatology, mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map. For a mix from every area, try ten questions from across the map.
A new set every day
6,800+ questions mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map, free every day with every answer explained. Climb your medical school's table.
Start today's run