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Free UKMLA clinical imaging questions with explanations

Clinical imaging questions ask which scan answers the clinical question, and when contrast is worth it. These ten cover spinal cord compression, ovarian torsion, superior vena cava obstruction, contrast in acute kidney injury, twin chorionicity and children's fractures.

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Question 1Cancer

A 68-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer presents with a two-week history of progressive mid-back pain, bilateral leg weakness and urinary hesitancy. Examination reveals brisk lower limb reflexes and a sensory level at T10. Which is the most appropriate imaging investigation?

  1. ABone scan
  2. BPlain radiograph of the spine
  3. CMRI of the whole spine
  4. DCT myelography
  5. ECT of the thoracic spine
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C. MRI of the whole spine

MRI of the whole spine is the investigation of choice for suspected metastatic spinal cord compression because it provides superior soft-tissue contrast for visualising the cord, epidural space and vertebral marrow without ionising radiation. MRI is recommended within 24 hours of clinical suspicion, and the whole spine must be imaged as multiple non-contiguous levels of compression are present in up to a third of malignant cases.

Remember

Suspected metastatic spinal cord compression requires whole-spine MRI within 24 hours, because multi-level non-contiguous compression occurs in up to a third of cases.

Question 2Obstetrics and gynaecology

A 24-year-old woman presents with 4 hours of sudden severe right pelvic pain and vomiting. Ovarian torsion is suspected. Urine pregnancy test is negative and she is haemodynamically stable. Which is the most appropriate initial investigation?

  1. AMRI pelvis
  2. BTransvaginal ultrasound with Doppler
  3. CDiagnostic laparoscopy
  4. DSerum CA-125
  5. ECT abdomen and pelvis with contrast
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B. Transvaginal ultrasound with Doppler

Pelvic ultrasound with Doppler is the first-line investigation for suspected ovarian torsion because it is rapid, avoids radiation in a young woman, and shows the typical enlarged, oedematous ovary with peripherally displaced follicles, often with a cyst as the lead point and free fluid. Doppler may show reduced or absent flow, although preserved flow does not exclude torsion. CT is reserved for when the differential is wide or ultrasound is unavailable, and MRI is too slow for an emergency in which time equals ovarian survival. Laparoscopy is the definitive diagnostic and therapeutic step, but it follows imaging in a stable patient rather than replacing it.

Remember

Suspected ovarian torsion is investigated first with pelvic ultrasound and Doppler, looking for an enlarged oedematous ovary with peripheral follicles.

Question 3Cancer

A 59-year-old woman with known non-small cell lung cancer develops facial swelling, distended neck veins and a feeling of head fullness when she lies down. She is alert with oxygen saturations of 95% on air and no stridor. Which investigation will best confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment?

  1. AChest radiograph
  2. BUpper limb venous Doppler ultrasound
  3. CTransthoracic echocardiogram
  4. DContrast-enhanced CT of the chest
  5. EBronchoscopy
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D. Contrast-enhanced CT of the chest

Contrast CT of the chest shows the site and degree of superior vena cava narrowing, distinguishes extrinsic compression by tumour from intraluminal thrombus, maps the collateral circulation and provides the anatomy needed to plan stenting or radiotherapy. A chest radiograph usually shows a widened mediastinum or right-sided mass but cannot define the venous obstruction or its cause. Echocardiography and upper limb Doppler each look at a part of the venous system but not at the vena cava itself in the mediastinum.

Remember

Contrast-enhanced CT chest is the investigation of choice in suspected superior vena cava obstruction, defining the level, cause and any thrombus.

Question 4Clinical imaging

A 72-year-old man is admitted with sepsis from a perforated diverticulum. He is oliguric and his creatinine has risen from 90 to 340 micromol/L over 48 hours. The surgical team request urgent cross-sectional imaging to delineate the collection before theatre. Which is the most appropriate imaging investigation?

  1. ACT abdomen without intravenous contrast
  2. BRenal tract ultrasound
  3. CCT abdomen with intravenous iodinated contrast
  4. DMRI abdomen with gadolinium contrast
  5. EPlain abdominal radiograph
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C. CT abdomen with intravenous iodinated contrast

Contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis is the standard investigation to characterise a collection, leak, bowel-wall viability and vascular anatomy before theatre in perforated diverticulitis. Contrast-associated AKI should be risk-assessed rather than treated as a contraindication, and contemporary evidence places that risk much lower than historically taught. In a septic patient going for source control regardless, the diagnostic benefit of contrast outweighs the renal risk, which would not alter the need for surgery.

Remember

Established AKI is not an absolute contraindication to IV contrast CT when the contrast is needed to answer an urgent surgical question.

Question 5Obstetrics and gynaecology

A 27-year-old woman has a pelvic ultrasound for investigation of dysmenorrhoea. It shows an incidental 3 cm simple, unilocular, anechoic cyst on the left ovary with no solid areas. She is asymptomatic from it. What is the most appropriate management of the cyst?

  1. AMRI pelvis
  2. BSerum CA-125
  3. CNo further follow-up of the cyst is required
  4. DRepeat transvaginal ultrasound in 3 months
  5. ELaparoscopic ovarian cystectomy
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C. No further follow-up of the cyst is required

In a premenopausal woman a simple cyst under 5 cm is almost always physiological, a follicle or corpus luteum, and resolves within a few menstrual cycles. UK guidance is that such cysts need neither follow-up imaging nor tumour markers. Ultrasound surveillance is reserved for simple cysts of 5 to 7 cm, and cysts above 7 cm need MRI or surgery because ultrasound cannot fully characterise them. CA-125 is not measured for an ultrasound-diagnosed simple cyst in this age group because it is raised by many benign conditions, endometriosis and menstruation among them, and would generate false alarms.

Remember

A simple ovarian cyst under 5 cm in a premenopausal woman is almost always physiological and needs no follow-up imaging or CA-125.

Question 6Obstetrics and gynaecology

A 30-year-old woman attends her dating scan at 12 weeks and is found to have a twin pregnancy. Which ultrasound feature indicates that the pregnancy is dichorionic?

  1. AFetuses of the same sex
  2. BAbsence of a dividing membrane
  3. CT sign at the membrane insertion
  4. DLambda sign at the membrane insertion
  5. EA thin dividing membrane with two layers
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D. Lambda sign at the membrane insertion

Chorionicity is best determined at the 11 to 14 week scan and is the single most important piece of information in a twin pregnancy, because it dictates surveillance and timing of birth. In a dichorionic pregnancy each twin has its own placenta and the chorion extends into the base of the dividing membrane, producing a triangular wedge of placental tissue, the lambda or twin peak sign, with a thick four-layer membrane. In a monochorionic diamniotic pregnancy the two amnions meet the single placenta directly, giving a thin two-layer membrane inserting as a T. No dividing membrane means a monochorionic monoamniotic pregnancy. Fetal sex is unhelpful: different sexes prove dichorionicity but same-sex twins can be either.

Remember

A lambda (twin peak) sign at the membrane insertion on the first-trimester scan indicates a dichorionic twin pregnancy.

Question 7Clinical imaging

A 6-year-old falls from a trampoline onto an outstretched hand and presents with a swollen, painful right elbow held in flexion. The hand feels cool compared with the left and the radial pulse is weak. What is the most likely injury?

  1. ASupracondylar humeral fracture
  2. BMonteggia fracture-dislocation
  3. CRadial head subluxation
  4. DOlecranon fracture
  5. ELateral condyle fracture of the humerus
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A. Supracondylar humeral fracture

Supracondylar humeral fractures are the commonest paediatric elbow fracture, typically occurring after a fall onto an outstretched hand in children aged 5-7. The displaced extension-type variant can tent or entrap the brachial artery, producing a cool, poorly perfused hand. Urgent neurovascular assessment and prompt closed reduction with K-wire fixation are needed for displaced injuries to prevent Volkmann ischaemic contracture.

Remember

Extension-type supracondylar humeral fractures in children carry the highest risk of brachial artery and median (especially anterior interosseous) nerve injury of any paediatric upper limb fracture.

Question 8Clinical imaging

A 25-year-old footballer presents with sudden onset right calf pain while sprinting. He felt as though he had been kicked from behind. On examination there is a palpable depression 4 cm above the calcaneal insertion and weak plantarflexion against resistance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AMedial head of gastrocnemius tear
  2. BSoleus muscle strain
  3. CAchilles tendon rupture
  4. DPosterior tibial tendon rupture
  5. EPlantaris tendon rupture
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C. Achilles tendon rupture

Sudden onset calf pain in a sprinting athlete with the sensation of being struck, a palpable gap just proximal to the calcaneal insertion and weak resisted plantarflexion is characteristic of Achilles tendon rupture. The defect typically lies 2-6 cm above the insertion in the relatively hypovascular zone; UK BOA/BOFAS guidance supports either functional bracing in equinus or surgical repair depending on patient factors.

Remember

A positive Simmonds (Thompson) test, loss of plantar flexion on calf squeeze, confirms Achilles tendon rupture.

Question 9Clinical imaging

A 9-year-old boy presents with a 2-day history of fever, refusal to weight-bear, and severe pain over the distal femur. Inflammatory markers are markedly elevated and blood cultures have been taken. A plain radiograph of the femur is reported as normal. Which is the most appropriate next investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

  1. ATechnetium-99m bone scan
  2. BMRI of the femur
  3. CUltrasound of the femur
  4. DCT of the femur
  5. ERepeat plain radiograph in 48 hours
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B. MRI of the femur

MRI is the investigation of choice for suspected acute osteomyelitis because it detects bone marrow oedema within 1–2 days of onset, well before plain radiographic changes appear (which require 30–50% bone mineral loss and typically take 10–14 days). MRI is the preferred imaging modality given its high sensitivity and specificity for early disease and its ability to delineate associated abscesses.

Remember

MRI is the first-line imaging investigation for suspected acute osteomyelitis as it detects marrow oedema within 1–2 days, whereas plain X-ray changes lag by 10–14 days.

Question 10Cancer

A 70-year-old woman with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with weight loss, muscle weakness, confusion, constipation, and polyuria. Blood tests reveal corrected calcium of 3.4 mmol/L and suppressed PTH. A chest X-ray shows a large cavitating mass in the right hilum. What is the most likely underlying mechanism of her hypercalcaemia?

  1. ATumour-secreted osteoclast-activating cytokines (IL-6, TNF)
  2. BPTHrP secretion by squamous cell carcinoma
  3. CEctopic PTH secretion
  4. DVitamin D excess from granulomas
  5. EBony metastases with osteolysis
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B. PTHrP secretion by squamous cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung classically secretes parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP), which binds PTH receptors on bone and kidney to drive calcium resorption and renal calcium retention while suppressing endogenous PTH via negative feedback. A cavitating hilar mass in a heavy smoker with severe hypercalcaemia and suppressed PTH is the textbook presentation of this humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy.

Remember

Squamous cell lung cancer causes hypercalcaemia via PTHrP, which mimics PTH action but is not detected by standard PTH assays, while the hypercalcaemia suppresses native PTH.

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