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Free UKMLA child health questions with explanations

Child health questions reward knowing what is normal for the age. These ten cover mastoiditis, prolonged neonatal jaundice, retinoblastoma, haemophilia, prematurity, secondary bedwetting and intussusception.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Child health

A 5-year-old with a 4-day history of acute otitis media develops swelling and tenderness behind the ear, with the pinna pushed forward and downward. He is febrile and unwell. What complication has developed?

  1. AFuruncle of the external ear canal
  2. BBezold abscess
  3. CAuricular cellulitis
  4. DAcute mastoiditis
  5. EPostauricular lymphadenitis
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D. Acute mastoiditis

Acute mastoiditis is a suppurative complication of acute otitis media in which infection extends into the mastoid air cells, producing postauricular swelling, tenderness, obliteration of the retroauricular sulcus and forward/downward displacement of the pinna with systemic upset. Urgent admission, IV antibiotics (typically ceftriaxone), CT of the temporal bones, and cortical mastoidectomy if a subperiosteal abscess is present are recommended.

Remember

Postauricular swelling with a forward-displaced pinna in a child with acute otitis media is acute mastoiditis until proven otherwise and warrants urgent ENT referral.

Question 2Child health

A 3-week-old term, breastfed girl remains jaundiced. Her mother reports pale, chalky stools and dark urine for a week. She is gaining weight. Which investigation is most important to arrange first?

  1. AG6PD assay
  2. BAbdominal ultrasound
  3. CThyroid function tests
  4. DConjugated (split) bilirubin
  5. EBlood group and direct antiglobulin test
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D. Conjugated (split) bilirubin

Jaundice persisting beyond 14 days in a term baby (21 days if preterm) is prolonged jaundice and needs a split bilirubin to separate the common benign unconjugated causes, such as breast milk jaundice, from cholestasis. Pale stools and dark urine mean conjugated bilirubin is not reaching the gut and is being excreted in urine, so the decisive question is whether the conjugated fraction is raised. If it is, urgent referral to a paediatric liver service is needed because biliary atresia must be diagnosed and treated with a Kasai portoenterostomy ideally before 8 weeks of age, after which the chance of restoring bile flow falls sharply. Ultrasound and further tests follow confirmation of cholestasis; a normal scan does not exclude biliary atresia.

Remember

Prolonged neonatal jaundice with pale stools and dark urine needs an urgent conjugated bilirubin to detect biliary atresia early.

Question 3Child health

A 14-month-old girl is brought in because her mother has noticed a white glow in her left pupil in flash photographs and a new inward turn of that eye. The red reflex is absent on the left. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. AUrgent referral to ophthalmology on the suspected cancer pathway
  2. BStart occlusion therapy for amblyopia
  3. CRoutine referral to the community orthoptic service
  4. DArrange an MRI of the orbits from primary care
  5. EReassure and review at the 2-year developmental check
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A. Urgent referral to ophthalmology on the suspected cancer pathway

Leukocoria, a white pupillary reflex, and a new squint in an infant are the two commonest presentations of retinoblastoma, and an absent red reflex in a child is referred for ophthalmological assessment on the suspected cancer pathway (NICE NG12). Dilated fundoscopy by an ophthalmologist confirms or excludes a tumour and identifies the other causes of leukocoria such as congenital cataract, Coats disease and retinopathy of prematurity. The diagnosis is made clinically and by ocular ultrasound, and biopsy is never performed because it can seed tumour outside the eye. A squint is treated only once its cause is known; occlusion therapy or routine orthoptics would delay a sight- and life-threatening diagnosis.

Remember

An absent red reflex or a new squint with leukocoria in a child is retinoblastoma until an ophthalmologist has looked: refer on the suspected cancer pathway, never watch and wait.

Question 4Clinical haematology

A 7-year-old boy with known severe haemophilia A presents with a painful, swollen right knee after a fall in the playground two hours ago. What is the most appropriate first treatment?

  1. APlatelet transfusion
  2. BIntravenous recombinant factor VIII concentrate
  3. COral tranexamic acid
  4. DIntravenous desmopressin
  5. EFresh frozen plasma
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B. Intravenous recombinant factor VIII concentrate

A painful swollen joint in a child with severe haemophilia A is a haemarthrosis until proven otherwise, and the treatment is immediate factor VIII replacement, given on clinical suspicion without waiting for imaging; each bleed into a joint damages cartilage, and early replacement limits the arthropathy. Desmopressin raises factor VIII by releasing endothelial stores, which works in mild haemophilia A and type 1 von Willebrand disease but not in severe disease, where there is almost no factor VIII to release. Tranexamic acid stabilises clot and is useful for mucosal bleeding but cannot replace the missing factor. Fresh frozen plasma contains factor VIII at too low a concentration to reach haemostatic levels without volume overload, and platelets are normal in haemophilia.

Remember

An acute joint bleed in severe haemophilia A is treated immediately with intravenous factor VIII concentrate; desmopressin works in mild disease but not when there is no factor VIII to release.

Question 5Child health

A baby born at 27 weeks' gestation is extubated to non-invasive respiratory support on day 3 of life. The team wants to reduce the risk of apnoea of prematurity and of subsequent bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Which drug is most appropriate?

  1. ASalbutamol
  2. BCaffeine citrate
  3. CFurosemide
  4. DAminophylline
  5. EDexamethasone
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B. Caffeine citrate

Caffeine citrate is a methylxanthine that stimulates the respiratory centre and treats apnoea of prematurity, and it also shortens the duration of ventilation. Because it reduces exposure to mechanical ventilation, early caffeine reduces the incidence of bronchopulmonary dysplasia and improves neurodevelopmental outcomes, so it is given routinely to very preterm infants. Aminophylline is an older methylxanthine with a narrower therapeutic window and more side effects. Systemic steroids can facilitate extubation in established severe disease but are used cautiously because of adverse effects on neurodevelopment.

Remember

Early caffeine citrate in very preterm infants treats apnoea, shortens ventilation and reduces bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

Question 6Child health

A baby is born to a mother who is hepatitis B surface antigen positive with a high viral load. The infant is well at delivery. In addition to hepatitis B vaccination starting at birth, what should be given to the neonate within 24 hours of birth to prevent vertical transmission?

  1. AEntecavir
  2. BLamivudine
  3. CHepatitis B immunoglobulin
  4. DTenofovir
  5. EPegylated interferon
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C. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin

Infants born to highly infectious hepatitis B-positive mothers require both active immunisation (hepatitis B vaccine starting at birth) and passive immunisation with hepatitis B immunoglobulin, given as soon as possible within 24 hours. This combined active-passive strategy substantially reduces the risk of vertical transmission. The maternal high viral load identifies the babies at highest risk who must receive immunoglobulin.

Remember

Babies of highly infectious HBsAg-positive mothers get hepatitis B vaccine plus immunoglobulin within 24 hours of birth.

Question 7Child health

A 4-year-old boy was profoundly hypotonic with a weak cry and poor feeding as a neonate. He now has insatiable hyperphagia, central obesity, short stature, small hands and feet, and cryptorchidism with hypoplastic external genitalia. Which syndrome is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ABardet-Biedl syndrome
  2. BAlstrom syndrome
  3. CCohen syndrome
  4. DPrader-Willi syndrome
  5. EWilson-Turner syndrome
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D. Prader-Willi syndrome

The biphasic course, severe neonatal hypotonia and feeding failure followed by childhood hyperphagia, central obesity, short stature, small hands and feet and hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, is the classical Prader-Willi phenotype. It results from loss of paternally expressed genes at 15q11-13 (paternal deletion in around 70% of cases, maternal uniparental disomy in most of the remainder), reflecting genomic imprinting at this locus.

Remember

Loss of the paternal 15q11-13 contribution causes Prader-Willi syndrome; loss of the maternal contribution at the same locus causes Angelman syndrome (genomic imprinting).

Question 8Child health

A 7-year-old girl has had vulval itching and painful defecation for 3 months. Examination shows symmetrical, white, shiny, thinned skin around the vulva and anus with several small areas of purpura. The hymen is intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ALichen planus
  2. BLichen sclerosus
  3. CVulvovaginitis
  4. DVitiligo
  5. EThreadworm infestation
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B. Lichen sclerosus

Lichen sclerosus has a second incidence peak in prepubertal girls, presenting with itch, dysuria, constipation from painful defecation, and a white atrophic plaque in a figure-of-eight distribution around the vulva and anus. The fragile skin bruises and bleeds easily, producing purpura and fissures that are frequently mistaken for sexual abuse; a symmetrical sclerotic white plaque with an intact hymen points to the dermatosis. Non-specific vulvovaginitis is the commonest cause of vulval symptoms at this age but produces erythema and discharge, not white atrophic skin. Treatment is a potent topical corticosteroid, and many children improve at puberty.

Remember

White atrophic perivulval and perianal skin with purpura and painful defecation in a prepubertal girl is lichen sclerosus, a recognised mimic of abuse.

Question 9Child health

A 7-year-old boy, dry at night for two years, has wet the bed most nights for three months. He opens his bowels twice a week with straining and hard stools, and sometimes soils his pants. What is the most appropriate first step?

  1. AStart a macrogol laxative
  2. BIncrease dietary fibre and fluids
  3. CStart an enuresis alarm
  4. DStart oxybutynin
  5. EStart desmopressin at bedtime
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A. Start a macrogol laxative

Bedwetting that returns after a sustained dry period is secondary enuresis, and the assessment looks for a cause: constipation, urinary tract infection, new-onset diabetes, obstructive sleep apnoea, and emotional upset or maltreatment. Infrequent hard stools with straining and soiling indicate chronic constipation with overflow, and a loaded rectum compresses the bladder and provokes detrusor overactivity, so treating the constipation with macrogol disimpaction followed by maintenance often resolves the wetting. Constipation should be treated before any enuresis-specific treatment is started; alarms and desmopressin address the wetting without its cause. A capillary glucose or urinalysis is also reasonable when secondary enuresis comes with thirst, weight loss or dysuria.

Remember

In secondary enuresis look for a cause; constipation with overflow soiling is treated with macrogol first, because a loaded rectum drives the bedwetting.

Question 10Child health

A 10-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of episodic inconsolable crying, vomiting, and now bright red blood mixed with mucus in the nappy. The mother describes the stool as looking like jam. Which diagnosis best fits this picture?

  1. AMeckel's diverticulum
  2. BGastroenteritis
  3. CPyloric stenosis
  4. DHirschsprung's enterocolitis
  5. EIntussusception
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E. Intussusception

Intussusception is the correct diagnosis: episodic inconsolable crying (paroxysmal colic from telescoping bowel), vomiting, and redcurrant jelly stools (blood mixed with mucus from mucosal ischaemia) in a 6 to 24 month old is the characteristic presentation; the classic triad is colicky pain, a palpable sausage-shaped mass and redcurrant jelly stool, present together in only a minority of children. It most commonly involves the ileocaecal region and is the leading cause of bowel obstruction in this age group; urgent ultrasound showing a target sign is recommended, followed by air enema reduction.

Remember

Intussusception classically presents between 6 and 24 months with paroxysmal crying, vomiting, and redcurrant jelly stools; diagnose with ultrasound and treat with air enema reduction.

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