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Free UKMLA cardiovascular questions with explanations

Cardiovascular is one of the areas of clinical practice in the UKMLA content map, and it reaches into acute medicine, prescribing and surgery. Here are ten questions from the WardRun bank, each with the full explanation.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Cardiovascular

A 60-year-old woman on a QT-prolonging antiemetic develops recurrent collapse. The monitor shows a polymorphic broad-complex tachycardia in which the QRS amplitude and axis vary continuously, self-terminating then recurring. She has a pulse. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

  1. AIntravenous magnesium sulfate
  2. BIntravenous adenosine
  3. COral bisoprolol
  4. DIntravenous flecainide
  5. EIntravenous amiodarone
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A. Intravenous magnesium sulfate

The rhythm is torsades de pointes, a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia associated with QT prolongation, here precipitated by a QT-prolonging drug. The immediate treatment in a patient with a pulse is intravenous magnesium sulfate (typically 2 g over 10 minutes), alongside stopping the offending drug and correcting electrolytes. Synchronised cardioversion is used if the patient becomes unstable, and unsynchronised defibrillation if she becomes pulseless.

Remember

Torsades de pointes with a pulse is treated with IV magnesium sulfate plus removal of the precipitant.

Question 2Cardiovascular

A 70-year-old man develops fever, sharp pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward, and a pericardial rub three weeks after a large anterior myocardial infarction. His troponin has returned to baseline and inflammatory markers are raised. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ADressler syndrome
  2. BPeri-infarction pericarditis
  3. CReinfarction
  4. DPulmonary embolism
  5. EVentricular aneurysm
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A. Dressler syndrome

Dressler syndrome is a post-myocardial infarction pericarditis that appears weeks after the event and is thought to be immune-mediated. It presents with fever, pleuritic chest pain relieved by leaning forward, a pericardial rub and raised inflammatory markers, with troponin no longer elevated. Management is anti-inflammatory therapy with high-dose aspirin plus colchicine; other NSAIDs are avoided after myocardial infarction because they impair infarct healing.

Remember

Dressler syndrome is immune-mediated pericarditis weeks after MI; treat with high-dose aspirin plus colchicine (other NSAIDs are avoided after MI).

Question 3Cardiovascular

A 72-year-old man has been taking amiodarone 200 mg daily for 18 months for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He is asymptomatic and attends clinic for routine drug monitoring. Which pair of tests is recommended every 6 months while on amiodarone?

  1. AFull blood count and urea and electrolytes
  2. BLiver function tests and chest radiograph
  3. CThyroid function tests and full blood count
  4. DLiver function tests and urea and electrolytes
  5. EThyroid function tests and liver function tests
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E. Thyroid function tests and liver function tests

Amiodarone is highly iodine-rich and lipophilic, accumulating in thyroid and liver, both thyroid dysfunction (hypo- or hyperthyroidism) and transaminitis/hepatitis are well-recognised and may be asymptomatic, hence TFTs and LFTs are recommended at baseline and every 6 months. Chest radiography is performed at baseline and repeated if respiratory symptoms develop to screen for pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, and serum potassium and ECG are also checked at baseline.

Remember

Amiodarone surveillance: TFTs and LFTs at baseline and every 6 months; CXR at baseline (repeat if respiratory symptoms); serum K+ and ECG at baseline.

Question 4Cardiovascular

A 63-year-old woman with newly diagnosed metastatic breast cancer presents with a swollen, painful right calf, and ultrasound confirms a proximal DVT. Her renal function is normal and she is not bleeding. What is the most appropriate anticoagulant?

  1. AApixaban
  2. BWarfarin
  3. CFondaparinux
  4. DDalteparin
  5. EUnfractionated heparin
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A. Apixaban

A DOAC such as apixaban or rivaroxaban is first-line for most patients with cancer-associated VTE, reflecting trial evidence (Caravaggio, ADAM-VTE) showing non-inferior efficacy with the convenience of oral dosing. With a non-luminal, non-gastrointestinal malignancy, normal renal function, and no bleeding, an oral DOAC is the clear first choice. Low molecular weight heparin is the preferred alternative in luminal gastrointestinal cancers, where DOACs carry higher gastrointestinal bleeding risk. Drug interactions and gut absorption should be reviewed before starting.

Remember

A DOAC is recommended first-line for cancer-associated VTE; LMWH is preferred when gastrointestinal bleeding risk is high, such as in luminal GI cancers.

Question 5Cardiovascular

A 72-year-old man on apixaban for atrial fibrillation falls and develops an acute subdural haematoma requiring emergency craniotomy. He needs urgent reversal of anticoagulation. Which agent specifically reverses the effect of apixaban?

  1. AIdarucizumab
  2. B4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate
  3. CVitamin K
  4. DAndexanet alfa
  5. EProtamine sulphate
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D. Andexanet alfa

Andexanet alfa is a recombinant decoy factor Xa with no procoagulant activity; it competes with native Xa for the apixaban (and rivaroxaban) binding site, restoring endogenous Xa function. Onset is rapid; effect lasts the duration of infusion. In UK practice 4-factor PCC is used for intracranial or pre-surgical bleeding, because NICE (TA697) recommends andexanet only for life-threatening gastrointestinal bleeding.

Takeaway: Andexanet alfa reverses factor Xa inhibitors (apixaban, rivaroxaban); idarucizumab reverses dabigatran (a IIa inhibitor).

Remember

Andexanet alfa reverses factor Xa inhibitors; idarucizumab reverses dabigatran.

Question 6Cardiovascular

A 50-year-old woman is reviewed in clinic 3 years after being diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension. She reports worsening exertional breathlessness and abdominal bloating over the past 2 months. Which cardiac complication is the leading cause of mortality in this condition?

  1. AMassive pulmonary haemorrhage
  2. BLeft ventricular failure
  3. CAtrial fibrillation
  4. DSudden cardiac death from ventricular arrhythmia
  5. ERight ventricular failure
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E. Right ventricular failure

In pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), progressive elevation of pulmonary vascular resistance imposes sustained pressure overload on the right ventricle, causing hypertrophy, dilatation and ultimately decompensated right heart failure; this is the predominant mode of death in registry data (REVEAL, French PAH registry). The patient's exertional breathlessness and abdominal bloating (suggesting hepatic congestion and ascites) reflect worsening right-sided failure.

Remember

Right ventricular failure is the leading cause of death in pulmonary arterial hypertension.

Question 7Cardiovascular

A 38-year-old man who smokes 30 cigarettes a day presents with painful ulceration of the tips of two fingers and one toe. Distal pulses are absent but femoral, popliteal and brachial pulses are normal. He has no diabetes, hypertension or hyperlipidaemia. Which condition best fits?

  1. ATakayasu arteritis
  2. BCardioembolic limb ischaemia
  3. CBuerger disease
  4. DAtherosclerotic peripheral arterial disease
  5. EPolyarteritis nodosa
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C. Buerger disease

Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is a non-atherosclerotic segmental inflammatory occlusive disease of small and medium distal arteries that occurs almost exclusively in heavy tobacco users, typically men under 45, producing distal digital ischaemia and ulceration with preserved proximal pulses and no conventional atherosclerotic risk factors. Complete and permanent smoking cessation is the only intervention shown to alter disease course.

Remember

Corkscrew collaterals on angiography in a young or middle-aged smoker with distal digital gangrene are characteristic of Buerger disease.

Question 8Cardiovascular

A patient with suspected acute mesenteric ischaemia is being investigated. What is the most appropriate first-line imaging investigation?

  1. AAbdominal ultrasound
  2. BPlain abdominal X-ray
  3. CMesenteric angiography (DSA) first
  4. DCT angiography of mesenteric vessels
  5. EMR angiography of mesenteric vessels
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D. CT angiography of mesenteric vessels

CT angiography of the mesenteric vessels is the recommended first-line imaging in suspected acute mesenteric ischaemia because it rapidly identifies arterial or venous occlusion, its cause (embolic, thrombotic, dissection), and secondary signs of bowel ischaemia such as bowel wall thickening, pneumatosis intestinalis, portal venous gas and pneumoperitoneum. It is widely available, accurate, and directly guides endovascular or surgical management.

Remember

CT angiography is the first-line investigation for suspected acute mesenteric ischaemia.

Question 9Cardiovascular

A patient has been seen in the TIA clinic with a confirmed anterior circulation TIA and is considered a candidate for carotid revascularisation. Which is the most appropriate first-line vascular imaging investigation?

  1. ATransthoracic echocardiography
  2. BCarotid Doppler ultrasound
  3. CTranscranial Doppler
  4. DConventional catheter angiography
  5. ECT perfusion imaging of the brain
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B. Carotid Doppler ultrasound

After a confirmed TIA in patients suitable for revascularisation, urgent carotid imaging is required within 24 hours of specialist assessment, with carotid duplex ultrasound the usual first-line, non-invasive modality; the National Clinical Guideline for Stroke 2023 accepts carotid duplex ultrasound, CT angiography or MR angiography for this, with stenosis reported by the NASCET method. Symptomatic 50-99% stenosis (NASCET) is offered carotid endarterectomy within 7 days of symptom onset.

Remember

Symptomatic 50-99% carotid stenosis (NASCET) gets endarterectomy within 7 days of TIA.

Question 10Cardiovascular

A 22-year-old woman is referred to clinical genetics. She has a tall, slender build with arachnodactyly, ectopia lentis, and a dilated aortic root on echocardiography. Molecular testing confirms a pathogenic FBN1 mutation. What is the inheritance pattern of this condition?

  1. AAutosomal recessive
  2. BX-linked recessive
  3. CAutosomal dominant
  4. DX-linked dominant
  5. EMitochondrial inheritance
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C. Autosomal dominant

Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15q21 encoding fibrillin-1, a key component of extracellular microfibrils. Each offspring of an affected individual has a 50% risk of inheriting the mutation, and around 25% of cases arise from de novo mutations. UK clinical genetics services (per the Ghent nosology) confirm diagnosis using systemic scoring plus aortic root or ectopia lentis findings, with FBN1 testing.

Remember

Marfan syndrome is autosomal dominant due to FBN1 mutations on chromosome 15, with ~25% of cases arising de novo.

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