Cancer questions in the UKMLA are mostly about recognising cancer early and handling its emergencies. These ten cover metastatic spinal cord compression, superior vena cava obstruction, suspected cancer referrals and the red flags of head and neck, penile and soft tissue cancer.
Pick your answer, then open the explanation.
Question 1Cancer
A 71-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer has had 2 weeks of worsening thoracic back pain, now with bilateral leg weakness and difficulty passing urine. Which investigation is most appropriate?
- AWhole-body PET-CT
- BPlain radiographs of the thoracic spine
- CCT of the thoracic spine
- DIsotope bone scan
- EMRI of the whole spine
Show the answerHide the answer
E. MRI of the whole spine
Back pain with neurological deficit in a patient with a bone-metastasising cancer is metastatic spinal cord compression until proven otherwise. MRI of the whole spine is the investigation of choice and should be done urgently, within 24 hours of neurological symptoms, because it shows the epidural soft tissue and the cord itself and around a third of patients have compression at more than one level, which changes radiotherapy or surgical planning. Dexamethasone 16 mg should be given at once, then 16 mg daily, when suspected compression causes neurological symptoms or signs, and the patient nursed flat with spinal precautions until stability is known. CT and plain films show bone but not the cord, and a bone scan shows metastases without indicating whether any are compressing the canal.
Remember
Suspected metastatic spinal cord compression with neurological symptoms or signs needs urgent whole-spine MRI within 24 hours and immediate high-dose dexamethasone.
Question 2Cancer
A 64-year-old smoker has two weeks of facial and arm swelling that is worse on waking and when bending forwards, with headache and breathlessness. His neck veins are distended and there are dilated veins over his upper chest. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- ANephrotic syndrome
- BCardiac tamponade
- CAngioedema
- DRight-sided heart failure
- ESuperior vena cava obstruction
Show the answerHide the answer
E. Superior vena cava obstruction
Swelling confined to the face, neck and arms, worse when lying flat or bending, with distended non-pulsatile neck veins and dilated collateral veins over the chest wall, is the picture of venous obstruction above the heart. In a smoker the usual cause is a bronchogenic carcinoma or its mediastinal nodes compressing the superior vena cava. Right heart failure raises pressure in both venae cavae and so causes ankle oedema and hepatomegaly as well, whereas here the lower body is spared. Urgent contrast CT of the chest confirms the level and cause of the obstruction.
Remember
Facial and arm swelling worse on bending forwards, with distended neck veins and chest wall collaterals, indicates superior vena cava obstruction, usually from lung cancer.
Question 3Cancer
A 65-year-old man presents with iron deficiency anaemia and intermittent rectal bleeding. His GP refers him urgently. What is the gold standard investigation to visualise the entire large bowel and obtain tissue for diagnosis?
- AMRI enterography
- BCT colonography
- CBarium enema
- DColonoscopy
- EFlexible sigmoidoscopy
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Colonoscopy
Colonoscopy is the gold standard investigation for suspected colorectal cancer, as it permits direct visualisation of the entire colon and rectum, targeted biopsy of suspicious lesions, and therapeutic polypectomy. In primary care a faecal immunochemical test is now performed first for iron deficiency anaemia or change in bowel habit, with suspected cancer pathway referral (and colonoscopy) if faecal haemoglobin is 10 micrograms/g or more.
Remember
Colonoscopy is the gold standard for suspected colorectal cancer because it combines complete large bowel visualisation with biopsy and polypectomy capability.
Question 4Cancer
A 74-year-old woman presents with iron deficiency anaemia (haemoglobin 78 g/L) but no visible rectal bleeding or change in bowel habit. On examination she has a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. What is the most likely site of the underlying malignancy?
- ADescending colon
- BSigmoid colon
- CCaecum
- DTransverse colon
- ERectum
Show the answerHide the answer
C. Caecum
Right-sided colonic tumours, particularly of the caecum, classically present with iron deficiency anaemia from chronic occult blood loss and a palpable right iliac fossa mass, because the wide caecal lumen allows tumours to grow large before causing obstruction or overt bleeding. Iron deficiency anaemia or an abdominal mass at any age should prompt a faecal immunochemical test, with urgent suspected cancer referral if FIT is 10 micrograms/g or more.
Remember
Iron deficiency anaemia plus a right iliac fossa mass in an elderly patient strongly suggests caecal carcinoma until proven otherwise.
Question 5Cancer
A 61-year-old woman with a 7-year history of erosive oral lichen planus, on intermittent topical steroids, develops a painful ulcer on the left lateral tongue that has persisted for 6 weeks. The ulcer has a raised, indurated edge and there is a firm 1.5 cm left submandibular lymph node. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- AChronic hyperplastic candidiasis
- BErosive flare of lichen planus
- CMajor aphthous ulcer
- DTraumatic ulcer
- EOral squamous cell carcinoma
Show the answerHide the answer
E. Oral squamous cell carcinoma
Oral lichen planus, particularly the erosive and atrophic forms, is a potentially malignant disorder with a small but real rate of transformation to squamous cell carcinoma, of the order of 1%, which is why patients need long-term follow-up and a low threshold for biopsy. A single ulcer that persists beyond 3 weeks, an indurated or rolled edge, fixation, and a firm regional lymph node are the features of carcinoma and override the background diagnosis; the lateral tongue is the commonest oral site. She needs an urgent suspected cancer referral for biopsy and staging. Any change in an oral lichen planus lesion that is asymmetrical, indurated or non-healing should be biopsied rather than attributed to a flare.
Remember
Erosive oral lichen planus carries a risk of squamous cell carcinoma; a persistent indurated ulcer with a hard neck node needs urgent suspected cancer referral, not steroids.
Question 6Ear, nose and throat
A 59-year-old man has 3 months of left-sided nasal blockage and intermittent blood-stained nasal discharge. Examination shows a fleshy polyp filling the left nasal cavity; the right side is clear. What is the most appropriate next step?
- AShort course of oral prednisolone then review
- BThree-month trial of intranasal corticosteroid
- CNasal saline irrigation and review in 6 weeks
- DUrgent referral to ENT for endoscopy and biopsy
- ERoutine referral to ENT
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Urgent referral to ENT for endoscopy and biopsy
Simple inflammatory polyps are almost always bilateral. A unilateral nasal mass, particularly with blood-stained discharge, must be treated as a tumour until histology proves otherwise: inverted papilloma (which can harbour squamous carcinoma), sinonasal carcinoma, lymphoma, or in adolescents an angiofibroma. Such patients need urgent ENT referral for nasendoscopy, imaging and biopsy under specialist conditions, because some of these lesions bleed heavily if sampled blind. Treating a unilateral mass with topical or oral steroids delays the diagnosis of a neoplasm. Persistent unilateral blood-stained discharge or unilateral obstruction in an adult is a red flag even without a visible mass.
Remember
A unilateral nasal polyp or mass, especially with blood-stained discharge, needs urgent ENT referral to exclude malignancy.
Question 7Cancer
A 62-year-old man sees his GP with a lump on his thigh that he first noticed 3 months ago and which has grown noticeably since. It is 7 cm, firm, deep to the fascia and slightly tender. What is the most appropriate next step?
- AFine needle aspiration in primary care
- BExcision biopsy in primary care
- CRoutine referral for surgical excision
- DReassure and review in three months
- EUrgent direct-access ultrasound of the lump
Show the answerHide the answer
E. Urgent direct-access ultrasound of the lump
A soft-tissue lump that is enlarging, larger than 5 cm, deep to the fascia or painful is suspicious for sarcoma rather than a simple lipoma, and the correct first step in primary care is an urgent direct-access ultrasound; if the scan is suspicious or inconclusive, the patient goes on a suspected-cancer referral to a sarcoma service. Surgical excision or biopsy of a possible sarcoma outside a specialist centre contaminates tissue planes and compromises limb-sparing surgery, so any biopsy is planned by the sarcoma unit after imaging. A rapidly enlarging deep firm mass must not be watched.
Remember
A soft-tissue lump that is enlarging, over 5 cm, deep to the fascia or painful needs urgent ultrasound to exclude sarcoma rather than excision or observation.
Question 8Renal and urology
A 68-year-old uncircumcised man, a lifelong smoker, has an 8-week history of a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans with a foul discharge that has slowly enlarged. There is a firm, non-tender 2 cm right inguinal lymph node. A full sexual health screen is negative. What is the most appropriate next step?
- ARefer on the suspected cancer pathway to urology
- BRoutine referral to urology for circumcision
- CPerform a punch biopsy in primary care
- DPrescribe topical clotrimazole and review in 4 weeks
- EPrescribe a potent topical corticosteroid for lichen sclerosus
Show the answerHide the answer
A. Refer on the suspected cancer pathway to urology
A persistent, indurated, enlarging penile ulcer in an older uncircumcised smoker, with a hard inguinal node and infection excluded, is penile cancer until proven otherwise and meets the criterion for a suspected cancer pathway referral: a penile mass or ulcerated lesion where sexually transmitted infection has been excluded, or a lesion persisting after treatment for one. Penile squamous cell carcinoma spreads early to the inguinal nodes, and delay in diagnosis directly worsens both survival and the chance of penis-preserving surgery. Biopsy and staging belong to the specialist team, and treating empirically for candida or lichen sclerosus would delay diagnosis of a lesion whose features do not fit either.
Remember
A persistent penile mass or ulcer with sexually transmitted infection excluded is referred urgently on the suspected cancer pathway to urology.
Question 9Respiratory
A 67-year-old smoker with no history of aspiration has a cavitating lesion in the right upper lobe, abutting the hilum, that has not shrunk after 6 weeks of appropriate antibiotics for a presumed lung abscess. Which investigation is most appropriate next?
- ACT-guided needle biopsy of the cavity
- BPET-CT
- CSputum cytology
- DBronchoscopy
- ERepeat chest X-ray in six weeks
Show the answerHide the answer
D. Bronchoscopy
A lung abscess that fails to respond to an adequate course of antibiotics in an older smoker with no risk factor for aspiration should be assumed to hide an obstructing bronchial carcinoma or a cavitating tumour until proved otherwise, and bronchoscopy both visualises and biopsies an endobronchial lesion while allowing washings for culture including tuberculosis. Needle biopsy of an infected cavity risks bronchopleural fistula, empyema and pneumothorax, so it follows a non-diagnostic bronchoscopy rather than preceding it. Further watchful waiting delays a cancer diagnosis.
Remember
A lung abscess that fails antibiotics in a smoker without an aspiration risk needs bronchoscopy to exclude an obstructing or cavitating carcinoma.
Question 10Infection
A 22-year-old university student presents to her GP with 2 weeks of fatigue, sore throat and cervical lymphadenopathy. A monospot test is positive. She asks about long-term implications. Which malignancy is most strongly associated with the causative organism?
- AKaposi sarcoma
- BFollicular lymphoma
- CBurkitt lymphoma
- DAdult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma
- ECervical squamous cell carcinoma
Show the answerHide the answer
C. Burkitt lymphoma
A positive monospot confirms infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus, a gamma-herpesvirus that establishes lifelong latency in B lymphocytes. EBV is found in almost all cases of endemic Burkitt lymphoma, which carries the defining c-MYC t(8;14) translocation and is the canonical EBV-associated B-cell tumour. EBV is also implicated in Hodgkin lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease.
Remember
EBV establishes latency in B cells and is strongly linked to Burkitt lymphoma (especially the endemic African form), Hodgkin lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and PTLD.
WardRun has more than 550 questions that touch cancer, mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map. For a mix from every area, try ten questions from across the map.
A new set every day
6,800+ questions mapped to the 2026 UKMLA content map, free every day with every answer explained. Climb your medical school's table.
Start today's run