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Free UKMLA acute and emergency questions with explanations

Acute and emergency questions test what you do first. These ten range from major trauma and smoke inhalation to a transfusion reaction, a suspected non-accidental injury and a drug-induced blistering rash.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Acute and emergency

A 34-year-old cyclist arrives in the emergency department 25 minutes after being hit by a van. Heart rate is 128 bpm, blood pressure 86/50 mmHg and the major haemorrhage protocol has been activated. Alongside blood products, which drug should be given now?

  1. ARecombinant factor VIIa
  2. BVitamin K
  3. CFibrinogen concentrate
  4. DProthrombin complex concentrate
  5. ETranexamic acid
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E. Tranexamic acid

Tranexamic acid reduces death from bleeding in trauma when given early: 1 g intravenously over 10 minutes followed by 1 g over 8 hours, started as soon as possible and within 3 hours of injury, because it inhibits fibrinolysis and the benefit is lost, and possibly reversed, when given later. It is given empirically to any trauma patient with, or at risk of, significant haemorrhage, without waiting for laboratory evidence of coagulopathy. Blood component replacement with plasma alongside red cells, early control of the bleeding source, and avoidance of hypothermia, acidosis and hypocalcaemia are the other pillars of damage-control resuscitation. The remaining agents are targeted therapies: prothrombin complex concentrate and vitamin K reverse warfarin, fibrinogen is replaced when a measured level is low, and recombinant factor VIIa has no routine place.

Remember

Give tranexamic acid 1 g intravenously within 3 hours of injury to any trauma patient with significant haemorrhage, then 1 g over 8 hours.

Question 2Acute and emergency

A 25-year-old woman is rescued from a house fire with significant smoke inhalation. She is comatose with respiratory failure, bright red venous blood, and a venous lactate of 14 mmol/L. Bag-valve-mask ventilation with 100% oxygen is in progress. Which antidote should be administered first?

  1. ADicobalt edetate
  2. BSodium nitrite
  3. CContinued high-flow 100% oxygen without specific antidote
  4. DSodium thiosulfate
  5. EHydroxocobalamin
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E. Hydroxocobalamin

Hydroxocobalamin is the first-line antidote for cyanide toxicity in smoke-inhalation victims because it directly chelates cyanide to form non-toxic cyanocobalamin (renally excreted) without inducing methaemoglobinaemia, which is critical when concomitant carbon monoxide poisoning may already be impairing oxygen delivery. Hydroxocobalamin is first-line in suspected cyanide poisoning from fire smoke, given alongside 100% oxygen.

Remember

Hydroxocobalamin is the UK first-line cyanide antidote in smoke-inhalation poisoning because it does not induce methaemoglobinaemia and is safe alongside concurrent carbon monoxide toxicity.

Question 3General practice and primary healthcare

A 34-year-old woman attends her GP in January with two weeks of daily headaches, nausea and tiredness. Her husband and two children have had similar symptoms, and she notes they all feel better when away from the house at work or school. Examination is normal and pulse oximetry reads 98%. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ACarbon monoxide poisoning
  2. BViral gastroenteritis affecting the household
  3. CIdiopathic intracranial hypertension
  4. DTension-type headache
  5. EMigraine without aura
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A. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Non-specific headache, nausea and fatigue affecting several members of the same household in winter, improving when they are away from the home, is the classic presentation of chronic low-level carbon monoxide exposure from a faulty boiler or blocked flue. Because carboxyhaemoglobin absorbs light similarly to oxyhaemoglobin, standard pulse oximetry reads a falsely normal saturation, so a reassuring reading does not exclude the diagnosis. The household needs to leave the property, have the appliance checked and have carboxyhaemoglobin measured. A household viral illness would not remit within hours of leaving the building and return on coming home.

Remember

Headache, nausea and tiredness in several household members that improve away from home suggests carbon monoxide poisoning.

Question 4Child health

A 4-month-old infant is brought to ED with a swollen, tender right thigh. The mother says the baby fell from the sofa earlier. Radiograph shows a spiral fracture of the mid-shaft of the femur. Observations are within normal limits and there are no other visible injuries. Which is the most appropriate next action?

  1. ADischarge with same-day social services notification
  2. BAdmit and refer to the hospital safeguarding lead
  3. CApply Gallows traction and arrange community follow-up
  4. DRequest police protection under section 46 before any clinical assessment
  5. ESame-day referral to a child protection paediatrician for outpatient skeletal survey
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B. Admit and refer to the hospital safeguarding lead

A spiral mid-shaft femoral fracture in a pre-mobile infant is a major red flag for non-accidental injury because the rotational force required is incompatible with the developmental stage and the offered history is implausible. Admission to a place of safety is mandated, with urgent referral to children's social care and a child protection medical assessment, including skeletal survey, fundoscopy and neuroimaging for occult injury.

Remember

Any fracture in a non-ambulant child, especially a spiral long-bone fracture, should be presumed non-accidental until proven otherwise and requires admission with urgent safeguarding referral.

Question 5Acute and emergency

A 65-year-old man with heart failure receiving packed red cells develops severe breathlessness, hypoxia and pink frothy sputum within 3 hours of starting the transfusion. Chest x-ray shows bilateral pulmonary oedema. His JVP is raised. Which diagnosis best fits this picture?

  1. AAnaphylactic transfusion reaction
  2. BTransfusion associated circulatory overload
  3. CTransfusion related acute lung injury
  4. DFebrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction
  5. EBacterial contamination of blood component
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B. Transfusion associated circulatory overload

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is hydrostatic pulmonary oedema from volume excess during transfusion, typically within 12 hours, producing breathlessness, hypoxia, hypertension and a raised JVP, especially in patients with cardiac or renal impairment. The raised JVP and heart failure context in this vignette point specifically to circulatory overload rather than an inflammatory lung injury (SHOT/ISBT definitions).

Remember

TACO presents within 12 hours of transfusion with pulmonary oedema, hypertension and a raised JVP in a fluid-sensitive patient.

Question 6Dermatology

A 24-year-old woman started lamotrigine 10 days ago. She has fever, painful dusky red patches spreading over her trunk with early blistering, and erosions on her lips and tongue. What is the most important immediate step?

  1. AStop lamotrigine
  2. BStart intravenous methylprednisolone
  3. CStart intravenous immunoglobulin
  4. DStart oral aciclovir
  5. EStart intravenous flucloxacillin
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A. Stop lamotrigine

A painful blistering rash with mucosal erosions within weeks of starting a new drug is Stevens-Johnson syndrome until proved otherwise, and lamotrigine is a well-recognised cause. The single intervention with the clearest effect on survival is immediate withdrawal of the culprit drug: every day of continued exposure increases mortality. Supportive care in a specialist burns or dermatology unit follows, with fluid replacement, wound care and ophthalmology review. Immunomodulating therapies such as corticosteroids, immunoglobulin or ciclosporin have inconsistent evidence and are specialist decisions that never precede stopping the drug.

Remember

In suspected Stevens-Johnson syndrome the first and most important action is to stop the culprit drug immediately.

Question 7Acute and emergency

A fracture is identified on CT in a patient with an extradural haematoma. What type of skull fracture is most commonly associated with extradural haematoma?

  1. ADiastatic suture fracture
  2. BLinear temporal bone fracture
  3. CDepressed frontal fracture
  4. DComminuted parietal fracture
  5. EBasilar skull fracture
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B. Linear temporal bone fracture

A linear fracture of the squamous temporal bone is the fracture pattern most commonly associated with an extradural haematoma, because the fracture line crosses the groove of the middle meningeal artery, lacerating it and producing rapid arterial bleeding between the dura and skull. Around 75 to 90% of extradural haematomas are associated with a skull fracture, although absence of a fracture (particularly in children with a compliant calvarium) does not exclude the diagnosis.

Remember

A linear temporal bone fracture crossing the middle meningeal artery groove is the classic cause of an extradural haematoma.

Question 8Surgery

An 84-year-old woman attends the emergency department with a rectal prolapse that has been out for 6 hours. The prolapsed bowel is oedematous but pink and does not reduce with gentle pressure. What is the most appropriate next step?

  1. AEmergency laparotomy and abdominal rectopexy
  2. BIntravenous antibiotics and observation for spontaneous reduction
  3. CFlexible sigmoidoscopy to assess mucosal viability
  4. DEmergency perineal rectosigmoidectomy (Altemeier procedure)
  5. EApply granulated sugar to the prolapse and reattempt manual reduction
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E. Apply granulated sugar to the prolapse and reattempt manual reduction

An incarcerated rectal prolapse that is still viable should be reduced in the emergency department. Oedema is what prevents reduction, so granulated sugar is applied to the mucosa for 15 to 30 minutes to draw fluid out osmotically, after which gentle sustained pressure with analgesia usually succeeds; the patient is then referred for elective repair. Emergency surgery is reserved for a prolapse that remains irreducible after these measures or that is dusky, ulcerated or necrotic, when an Altemeier perineal rectosigmoidectomy is the usual choice in a frail patient. Waiting with antibiotics allows the oedema and venous congestion to progress towards strangulation.

Remember

A viable incarcerated rectal prolapse is treated with topical granulated sugar to reduce oedema followed by manual reduction; surgery is for irreducible or necrotic bowel.

Question 9Cardiovascular

A patient with a history of cardiac arrest secondary to ventricular fibrillation has been resuscitated. Investigations reveal no reversible cause. Echocardiography shows a structurally normal heart. What is the most important intervention to reduce the risk of future sudden cardiac death?

  1. AExternal wearable defibrillator
  2. BImplantable cardioverter-defibrillator
  3. CLifelong oral beta-blocker
  4. DCatheter ablation of VT substrate
  5. ELifelong oral amiodarone
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B. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

An implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is indicated for secondary prevention after a survived cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation or haemodynamically significant VT when no reversible cause is identified. ICDs continuously monitor rhythm and deliver defibrillation to terminate recurrent life-threatening arrhythmias, with trials such as AVID demonstrating a clear mortality benefit over antiarrhythmic therapy.

Remember

Survived VF/VT arrest with no reversible cause is a class I indication for ICD implantation as secondary prevention of sudden cardiac death.

Question 10Dermatology

A 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents with a 2-day history of an expanding, sharply demarcated, intensely red, raised, hot plaque on her right cheek with a clear advancing edge. She is febrile at 38.4 degrees. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ACellulitis
  2. BHerpes zoster of the trigeminal nerve
  3. CErysipelas
  4. DErythema migrans
  5. EContact dermatitis
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C. Erysipelas

Erysipelas is a superficial dermal infection, almost always due to beta-haemolytic streptococci, presenting as a brightly erythematous, sharply demarcated, raised plaque with a clear advancing edge, classically on the face or lower leg. Flucloxacillin is first-line for most sites; for cellulitis or erysipelas near the eyes or nose the first-line antibiotic is oral co-amoxiclav (clarithromycin plus metronidazole if penicillin-allergic).

Remember

Erysipelas: superficial streptococcal dermal infection with a raised, sharply demarcated, advancing edge. Near the eyes or nose, first-line is co-amoxiclav (clarithromycin plus metronidazole if pen-allergic).

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