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Free preclinical SBA questions for first and second years

Single best answer questions are not just for finals. Preclinical exams use them too, and the science you learn now is what the UKMLA builds on. Here are ten from the WardRun bank, each set in a real patient so the science has somewhere to land.

Pick your answer, then open the explanation.

Question 1Pathology

A 68-year-old man with severe COPD has distended neck veins, a tender enlarged liver and pitting oedema up to his knees. Which change drives fluid out of his capillaries into his legs?

  1. AReduced plasma oncotic pressure
  2. BRaised capillary hydrostatic pressure
  3. CRaised interstitial oncotic pressure
  4. DObstructed lymphatic drainage
  5. EIncreased capillary permeability
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B. Raised capillary hydrostatic pressure

Distended neck veins and a tender, congested liver in a man with severe COPD indicate right heart failure secondary to lung disease. The failing right ventricle cannot keep pace with venous return, so systemic venous pressure rises and is transmitted back to the capillaries. Raised capillary hydrostatic pressure makes filtration outstrip reabsorption and lymphatic drainage, and a protein-poor transudate collects in dependent tissues such as the legs, where it pits. Low oncotic pressure and leaky capillaries cause oedema by different routes, in hypoalbuminaemia and inflammation respectively. Takeaway: Heart failure causes oedema mainly by raising venous, and so capillary hydrostatic, pressure.

Remember

Right heart failure raises systemic venous pressure, which raises capillary hydrostatic pressure and drives a pitting transudate into dependent tissues.

Question 2Pharmacology

A 58-year-old woman having chemotherapy for leukaemia has Candida albicans in her blood cultures and is given intravenous amphotericin B. Which action on the fungal cell explains how amphotericin B kills it?

  1. AInhibition of squalene epoxidase
  2. BBlockade of ergosterol synthesis
  3. CInhibition of cell wall glucan synthesis
  4. DConversion to fluorouracil inside the fungus
  5. EErgosterol binding that opens membrane pores
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E. Ergosterol binding that opens membrane pores

Amphotericin B is a polyene. It inserts into the fungal membrane and binds ergosterol, several molecules assembling into a channel through which potassium and other small ions leak out. The membrane loses its barrier function and the cell dies, so the drug is fungicidal. Human membranes contain cholesterol rather than ergosterol, but the selectivity is imperfect, which explains infusion reactions, renal tubular potassium and magnesium loss and impaired urinary concentration. Azoles also target ergosterol, but by preventing its synthesis rather than binding it. Takeaway: amphotericin B binds membrane ergosterol and forms pores that kill the fungus.

Remember

Amphotericin B binds ergosterol in the fungal membrane and forms pores through which ions leak.

Question 3Physiology

A newborn girl has upslanting palpebral fissures, hypotonia and an atrioventricular septal defect. Her karyotype has 46 chromosomes, with extra chromosome 21 material. Her healthy mother has 45 chromosomes. Which rearrangement does her mother carry?

  1. ARobertsonian translocation
  2. BParacentric inversion
  3. CReciprocal translocation
  4. DRing chromosome
  5. EPericentric inversion
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A. Robertsonian translocation

A Robertsonian translocation joins the long arms of two acrocentric chromosomes (13, 14, 15, 21 or 22) at or near their centromeres. The short arms carry ribosomal RNA genes repeated on the other acrocentrics, so their loss is harmless, and a balanced carrier is healthy but has 45 chromosomes. If the mother passes on the fused chromosome, commonly 14;21, together with a normal 21, her child has 46 chromosomes but three copies of 21q, giving translocation Down syndrome. Reciprocal translocations and inversions keep the count at 46. Takeaway: A healthy person with 45 chromosomes most likely carries a balanced Robertsonian translocation.

Remember

A balanced Robertsonian translocation fuses two acrocentric chromosomes, so a healthy carrier has 45 chromosomes and can have a child with translocation Down syndrome.

Question 4Pathology

A 58-year-old man is resuscitated after a cardiac arrest lasting 12 minutes. Weeks later he walks and talks normally but cannot remember anything new for more than a few minutes. Loss of which neurons best explains his memory deficit?

  1. AHippocampal CA1 pyramidal neurons
  2. BNeocortical layer 3 pyramidal neurons
  3. CCerebellar Purkinje cells
  4. DSubstantia nigra dopaminergic neurons
  5. EMammillary body neurons
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A. Hippocampal CA1 pyramidal neurons

Neurons differ in their sensitivity to global ischaemia. The most vulnerable are the pyramidal neurons of the hippocampal CA1 sector (Sommer sector), together with cerebellar Purkinje cells and pyramidal neurons in neocortical layers 3, 5 and 6. This vulnerability is linked to heavy glutamatergic input: during ischaemia, excess glutamate opens NMDA receptors, calcium floods in and activates destructive enzymes. Bilateral CA1 loss after a cardiac arrest leaves a dense anterograde amnesia while other functions recover. Purkinje cell loss would show as ataxia instead, and mammillary body damage is the lesion of thiamine deficiency. Takeaway: Hippocampal CA1 pyramidal neurons are the most vulnerable to global ischaemia, so cardiac arrest survivors may be left amnesic.

Remember

Hippocampal CA1 pyramidal neurons are the neurons most vulnerable to global cerebral ischaemia, so survivors of cardiac arrest may be left with anterograde amnesia.

Question 5Physiology

An 86-year-old woman sits in her garden on most sunny afternoons, yet her 25-hydroxyvitamin D is low. Her 25-year-old granddaughter, with similar sun exposure, has a normal level. Which age-related change best explains the difference?

  1. AReduced renal 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity
  2. BFewer intestinal vitamin D receptors
  3. CMore melanin in the epidermis
  4. DReduced hepatic 25-hydroxylase activity
  5. ELess 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin
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E. Less 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin

Vitamin D3 is made in the skin when ultraviolet B light converts 7-dehydrocholesterol in the epidermis to previtamin D3, which then isomerises to cholecalciferol. The liver converts it to 25-hydroxyvitamin D, the circulating store that reflects vitamin D status, and the kidney then makes the active 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D. Ageing skin contains much less 7-dehydrocholesterol, so the same sun exposure produces substantially less vitamin D3 in an older person than in a young adult. Reduced renal 1-alpha-hydroxylase is also an age-related change, but it lowers the active hormone, not the 25-hydroxy form measured here.

Takeaway: Older skin has less 7-dehydrocholesterol, so it makes less vitamin D from sunlight.

Remember

Ageing skin contains less 7-dehydrocholesterol, so the same ultraviolet B exposure makes less vitamin D3 in older people.

Question 6Pathology

A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation has sudden left loin pain and blood in his urine. CT shows an unperfused, wedge-shaped area of kidney with its apex towards the hilum. Which feature of the renal circulation explains this pattern?

  1. ATwo capillary beds in series
  2. BDual arterial blood supply
  3. CEnd arteries without anastomoses
  4. DLow total renal blood flow
  5. ECountercurrent vasa recta arrangement
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C. End arteries without anastomoses

Thrombus from the fibrillating left atrium can embolise to the kidney and block an interlobar or arcuate branch. Renal arterial branches are functional end arteries with no useful anastomoses, so the whole territory beyond the block dies. Because the branches fan out from the hilum, the dead zone is a wedge with its apex at the occluded vessel and its base at the capsule. The solid parenchyma limits seepage of blood into the dead area, so the infarct is pale, as in the heart and spleen. Organs with a dual supply, such as the lung, infarct less readily and bleed into dead tissue. Takeaway: End-arterial organs such as the kidney form pale, wedge-shaped infarcts.

Remember

Renal arteries are end arteries, so blocking one branch kills its whole wedge-shaped territory as a pale infarct.

Question 7Pathology

A 64-year-old man with a change in bowel habit has a colon cancer removed. The report says the tumour forms very few glands and its cells bear little resemblance to normal colonic epithelium. Which property of the tumour does this describe?

  1. AHistological grade
  2. BNodal status
  3. CPathological stage
  4. DTumour clonality
  5. EDepth of invasion
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A. Histological grade

Grade is the pathologist's assessment of how closely a tumour resembles its tissue of origin, judged from differentiation, nuclear atypia and mitotic activity. A colonic adenocarcinoma that forms few glands and bears little resemblance to normal epithelium is poorly differentiated, or high grade. Stage is a different measure: it describes the extent of spread, recorded as T for invasion by the primary tumour, N for lymph nodes and M for distant metastases. For most carcinomas, stage predicts outcome better than grade. Takeaway: Grade describes differentiation, while stage describes spread.

Remember

Grade describes how differentiated a tumour's cells are, while stage describes how far the tumour has spread.

Question 8Physiology

A 29-year-old woman trying to conceive notices that for two days in mid-cycle her vaginal discharge becomes clear, slippery and stretchy. Which hormone produces this change in her cervical mucus?

  1. ALuteinising hormone
  2. BOestradiol
  3. CProlactin
  4. DProgesterone
  5. EFollicle-stimulating hormone
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B. Oestradiol

As the dominant follicle grows, its granulosa cells secrete rising amounts of oestradiol, which peaks just before the LH surge. Oestradiol acts on the endocervical glands to produce copious, watery, stretchy mucus whose aligned glycoprotein strands help sperm swim through. After ovulation, progesterone from the corpus luteum reverses this, making the mucus thick, sticky and scant, so the fertile mucus disappears within a day or two. LH and FSH act on the ovary rather than the cervix, so any effect they have on mucus is indirect, through the steroids they stimulate.

Takeaway: Pre-ovulatory oestradiol makes cervical mucus clear and stretchy; progesterone thickens it.

Remember

Rising oestradiol before ovulation makes cervical mucus clear, watery and stretchy, whereas progesterone after ovulation thickens it.

Question 9Pharmacology

A 25-year-old woman with anxiety takes diazepam and becomes calmer. Which ion movement across the membranes of her CNS neurones most directly reduces their excitability?

  1. ACalcium influx
  2. BSodium influx
  3. CSodium efflux
  4. DPotassium efflux
  5. EChloride influx
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E. Chloride influx

Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that binds an allosteric site on the GABA-A receptor, a pentameric ligand-gated chloride channel. It does not open the channel itself but increases the frequency of opening when GABA is bound. The resulting chloride influx hyperpolarises the neurone and moves it away from threshold, which produces anxiolysis, sedation, muscle relaxation and anticonvulsant effects. Takeaway: Benzodiazepines enhance GABA-A chloride influx, which hyperpolarises neurones and reduces their excitability.

Remember

Benzodiazepines are positive allosteric modulators of the GABA-A receptor, increasing chloride channel opening frequency and so hyperpolarising neurones.

Question 10Pharmacology

A 52-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis starts abatacept, a fusion protein that binds CD80 and CD86 on her dendritic cells. Which signal to her T cells does this remove?

  1. AIntegrin-mediated adhesion to endothelium
  2. BAntigen presentation on MHC class II
  3. CCostimulatory signalling through CD28
  4. DT cell receptor engagement of peptide
  5. EInterleukin-2 receptor signalling
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C. Costimulatory signalling through CD28

A resting T cell needs two signals. The first is its receptor reading antigenic peptide presented on MHC, and the second is CD28 on the T cell binding CD80 or CD86 on the antigen-presenting cell. Without the second signal the cell becomes anergic. Abatacept is the extracellular domain of CTLA-4 fused to immunoglobulin Fc, and because CTLA-4 binds CD80 and CD86 far more avidly than CD28 does, it outcompetes CD28 and denies that costimulation. Interleukin-2 receptor blockade is the tempting alternative, but it acts after activation rather than at the synapse.

Takeaway: Abatacept is a CTLA-4 fusion protein that outcompetes CD28 for CD80 and CD86, denying T cells their costimulatory second signal.

Remember

Abatacept binds CD80 and CD86 so CD28 cannot deliver the costimulatory second signal, leaving T cells anergic.

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